Question 1:
Phenylbutazone is a potent
A.
Anti pyretic
B.
Anti inflammatory agent
C.
Anti septic
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 2:
Stilboestrol belongs to
A.
Synthetic estrogen
B.
Semi synthetic estrogen
C.
Natural oestrogen
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 3:
All are centrally acting muscle relaxant except:
A.
Baclofen
B.
Tizanidine
C.
Dantrolene
D.
Benzodiazepine
Answer: _________
Question 4:
. . . . . . . . is found in rich amounts in the neuromuscular junction, postganglionic parasympathetic nerve terminal and ANS ganglia.
A.
True choline esterase
B.
Butyryl choline esterase
C.
Pseudocholine esterase
D.
Acetylcholinesterase
Answer: _________
Question 5:
. . . . . . . . drug has promising in-vitro and in-vivo activity against strains of Mycobacterium avium Complex.
A.
Rifabutin
B.
Clarithromycin
C.
Azithromycin
D.
Ciprofloxacin
Answer: _________
Question 6:
The drug used as an analeptic is
A.
Nikethamide
B.
Amphetamine
C.
Bemegride
D.
All the above
Answer: _________
Question 7:
Drug used to test gastric acid secretion
A.
Dexamethasone
B.
Tyramine
C.
Mannitol
D.
Histamine
Answer: _________
Question 8:
Gatifloxacin has been withdrawn from market becuase.
A.
Causes renal failure
B.
Causes peripheral vascular disease
C.
Causes erectile dysfunction
D.
Hyperglycemia in elderly
Answer: _________
Question 9:
Which among the following is an antifilarial drug?
A.
DEC
B.
FNH
C.
PAS
D.
DDS
Answer: _________
Question 10:
The mechanism of vigabatrin's action is:
A.
Direct action on the GABA receptorchloride channel complex
B.
Inhibition of GABA aminotransferase
C.
NMDA receptor blockade via the glycine binding site
D.
Inhibition of GABA neuronal reuptake from synapses
Answer: _________
Question 11:
The treatment of hormonal deficiencies necessarily implicates the use of . . . . . . . . therapy.
A.
Replacement
B.
Diffusion
C.
Genome
D.
Transplant
Answer: _________
Question 12:
Which effect may lead to toxic reactions when a drug is taken continuously or repeatedly?
A.
Refractoriness
B.
Cumulative effect
C.
Tolerance
D.
Tachyphylaxis
Answer: _________
Question 13:
H b A 1c monitoring of blood is important in which of the given disease condition?
A.
C. C. F
B.
DM
C.
M. I
D.
Atherosclerosis
Answer: _________
Question 14:
What is Pharmacodynamics?
A.
Treatment of disease
B.
Prevention of disease
C.
Interaction of drug with receptor
D.
Movement of drug through body
Answer: _________
Question 15:
The half life of insulin of normal subject . . . . . . . . minute
A.
15 - 30
B.
10 - 15
C.
01 - 02
D.
05 - 06
Answer: _________
Question 16:
Select reversible cholinesterase inhibiter
A.
Isoflurophate
B.
Carbochol
C.
Physostigmine
D.
Parathion
Answer: _________
Question 17:
Antihypertensive agent.
A.
Amphetamine
B.
Adrenaline
C.
Salbutamol
D.
Propranolol
Answer: _________
Question 18:
Analgesics are
A.
CNS depressants
B.
Inhalation route
C.
SNS stimulants
D.
Both A and B
Answer: _________
Question 19:
Which of the following can be used as an antidote for atropine?
A.
Physostigmine
B.
Oxyphenonium
C.
Hyoscine butyl bromide
D.
Propan theline
Answer: _________
Question 20:
Which one of the following group is responsible for the duration of the local anesthetic action?
A.
Intermediate chain
B.
Lipophylic group
C.
Ionizable group
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 21:
. . . . . . . . is commonly used intramuscular preparation which contains 50mg/ml of elemental iron.
A.
Sorbitex injection
B.
Polyisomaltose
C.
Iron dextran Injection
D.
Iron adenylate
Answer: _________
Question 22:
. . . . . . . . acts by slowing down the influx of sodium ions into the cardiac muscle cells thus decreasing the excitability of the cells
A.
Propafenone
B.
Procainamide
C.
Flecainide
D.
Lidocaine
Answer: _________
Question 23:
Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure.
A.
An endoperoxide
B.
An exoperoxide
C.
An epoxide
D.
An acid hydrazide
Answer: _________
Question 24:
Advantages of Intravenous route of administration of drugs.
A.
Useful in case of vomiting, diarrhea
B.
Useful for unconscious or uncooperative patients
C.
Provides rapid onset of action
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 25:
Testing in healthy subjects to gather information on chemical action safe dose level and safety is?
A.
Phase-I
B.
Phase-II
C.
Phase-III
D.
Phase-IV
Answer: _________
Question 26:
Over use of digitalis may result in
A.
Habituation
B.
Tolerance
C.
Addiction
D.
Cumulative poisoning
Answer: _________
Question 27:
. . . . . . . . is used as single agent for the prevention of exercise induced bronchospasm in those who do not have persistent asthma.
A.
Salbutamol
B.
Salmeterol
C.
Fenoterol
D.
Ibuterol
Answer: _________
Question 28:
Selenium sulfide is used topically as a/an:
A.
Antifungal
B.
Anti bacterial
C.
Kerolytic agent
D.
All the above
Answer: _________
Question 29:
Blood pressure is . . . . . . . . by hypnotic doses of barbiturates which reduce cardiac output and induce vasodilatation and peripheral pooling of blood.
A.
Changed
B.
Enhanced
C.
Maintained
D.
Lowered
Answer: _________
Question 30:
. . . . . . . . is also known as corpuscular or vesicular transport, because cell membrane engulfs extracellular material by forming a vesicle or saccule, which is destructed by the enzymes present within the cell and lysozyme later on.
A.
Endocytosis
B.
Phagocytosis
C.
Pinocytosis
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 31:
A preparation containing killed or attenuated viruses is termed as.
A.
Vaccine
B.
Antiserum
C.
Toxin
D.
Toxoid
Answer: _________
Question 32:
The mechanism of fiuoroquinolones' action is:
A.
Inhibition of phospholipase C
B.
Inhibition of DNA gyrase
C.
Inhibition of bacterial cell synthesis
D.
Alteration of cell membrane permeability
Answer: _________
Question 33:
Select the drug used for pernicious anemia:
A.
Ferrous lactate
B.
Cyanocobalamin
C.
Iron dextran
D.
Ferrous gluconate
Answer: _________
Question 34:
Pancreatin is a
A.
Antiacid
B.
Antitussive
C.
Antiemetic
D.
Digestant
Answer: _________
Question 35:
Which of the following is Cholinergic Blocking agent?
A.
Atropine
B.
Carbachol
C.
Acetylcholine
D.
Pilocarpine
Answer: _________
Question 36:
Tick mixed (opioid/non-opioid) agent:
A.
Paracetamol
B.
Tramadol
C.
Sodium valproate
D.
Butorphanol
Answer: _________
Question 37:
Half life of insulin is . . . . . . . .
A.
Less than 1 min
B.
5 to 6 min
C.
30 to 40 min
D.
1 to 2 hr
Answer: _________
Question 38:
What is the fatal dose of Antihistamines?
A.
10 to 15 mg/kg
B.
5 to 10 mg/kg
C.
25 to 50 mg/kg
D.
1 to 5m g/kg
Answer: _________
Question 39:
Which one of the following is an advantage of parenteral route of administration?
A.
No first-pass metabolism
B.
Infection may occur
C.
Technical and trained person required
D.
Safety level is very low
Answer: _________
Question 40:
Carbamazepine is mainly indicated for:
A.
Hypertension
B.
Severe depression
C.
Mania
D.
Neuralgia
Answer: _________
Question 41:
. . . . . . . . is a carrier-mediated process.
A.
Glomerular filtration
B.
Active tubular secretion
C.
Tubular re-absorption
D.
Passive tubular secretion
Answer: _________
Question 42:
Which of the following avoid flrst pass effect of the drugs?
A.
Oral ingestion
B.
Rectal suppository
C.
Intravenous injections
D.
None of the other options
Answer: _________
Question 43:
. . . . . . . . is used for the treatment of hyperkinetic syndrome in children.
A.
Noradrenaline
B.
Amphetamine
C.
Epinephrine
D.
Adrenaline
Answer: _________
Question 44:
The antidote BAL is used to reduce toxicity of
A.
Iron
B.
Pesticide
C.
Barbiturates
D.
Mercury
Answer: _________
Question 45:
Diarrhoea is common side effect associated with
A.
Paracetamol
B.
Antibiotics
C.
Drug used for vomiting
D.
Antacid
Answer: _________
Question 46:
Levetiracetam is classified as a/an:
A.
Antihistamine
B.
Antineoplastic
C.
Anticonvulsant
D.
Antipsychotic
Answer: _________
Question 47:
A leukotriene receptor antagonist used in allergic cough is.
A.
Rofecoxib
B.
Theophylline
C.
Losartan
D.
Montelukast
Answer: _________
Question 48:
Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of pheochromocytoma?
A.
Phenylephrine
B.
Propranolol
C.
Phentolamine
D.
Epinephrine
Answer: _________
Question 49:
Digitalis is most effective in patients exhibiting:
A.
Heart failure with atrial fibrillation, flutter with fast ventricular rate
B.
Heart failure due to ischaemia
C.
Isolated mitral stenosis
D.
Constructive pericarditis and cardiac tamponade
Answer: _________
Question 50:
The . . . . . . . . are drugs which block the histamine action on the parietal cells in stomach, thus acid produced by these cells decreases.
A.
Antigastrin drugs
B.
Anticholinergic agents
C.
H 2 receptor antagonists
D.
Proton pump inhibitors
Answer: _________
Question 51:
Phenformin and metformin are the commonly used drugs of . . . . . . . . class.
A.
Biguanides
B.
Meglitinide analogues
C.
Thiazolidinediones
D.
α-glucosidase inhibitors
Answer: _________
Question 52:
Which one of the following drug is commonly used for treating Diabetes?
A.
Metformin
B.
Erythromycin
C.
Paracetamol
D.
Amlodipine
Answer: _________
Question 53:
Apli test is used to test-for
A.
Measles
B.
Pregnancy
C.
Diabetis
D.
T. B.
Answer: _________
Question 54:
Which of the following drugs causes bronchodilation without significant cardiac stimulation?
A.
Isoprenaline
B.
Terbutaline
C.
Xylometazoline
D.
Methoxamine
Answer: _________
Question 55:
The drug which is indictated for patients at risk of Reye's syndrome is
A.
Ibuprofen
B.
Indomethacin
C.
Acetaminophen
D.
Aspirin
Answer: _________
Question 56:
Alopecia is
A.
Breathlessness
B.
Loss of energy
C.
Loss of hair
D.
Numbness
Answer: _________
Question 57:
In insomnia which drug is contraindicated?
A.
Amphetamine
B.
Diazepam
C.
Adrenaline
D.
Atropine
Answer: _________
Question 58:
For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?
A.
Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
B.
Peptic ulcers
C.
Thromboembolism
D.
Metabolic acidosis
Answer: _________
Question 59:
A drug that is most useful in the relief of acute attacks of gout is: .
A.
Colchicine
B.
Allopurinol
C.
Probenecid
D.
Aspirin
Answer: _________
Question 60:
Site of ADH action is
A.
Proximal tubules
B.
Loop of Henle
C.
Vasa recta
D.
Collecting tubules
Answer: _________
Question 61:
. . . . . . . . is the ratio between the dose that can produce useful and the dose responsible for side/toxic effects.
A.
Therapeutic index
B.
Competition
C.
Tolerance
D.
Effectiveness
Answer: _________
Question 62:
The route by which a drug is administered into the ear canal is called
A.
Transdermal
B.
Sublingual
C.
Buccal
D.
Aural
Answer: _________
Question 63:
Which of the following is a class-1 A anti arrhythmic agent?
A.
Amiodorone
B.
Flecainide
C.
Lidocaine
D.
Procainamide
Answer: _________
Question 64:
Mechanism of action of levamisole is:
A.
Inhibits CD3 receptor
B.
Complement-mediated cytolysis of T lymphocytes
C.
Substitution for patient's defiecient immunoglobulins
D.
Increase the number of T-cells
Answer: _________
Question 65:
Common side effect of NSAID
A.
Sedation
B.
Kidney failure
C.
Headache
D.
Ulceration
Answer: _________
Question 66:
Chloroquin is an antimalarial drug which belongs to the class of
A.
4 amino quinoline
B.
3 amino quinoline
C.
2 amino quinoline
D.
Acidine
Answer: _________
Question 67:
What is Co-trimoxazole?
A.
Penicillin + Sulfadimidine
B.
Sulfadoxine + Pyrimethamine
C.
Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim
D.
Triple sulfa
Answer: _________
Question 68:
Location of receptors for glucocorticoid hormones is
A.
Nucleus
B.
Cell membrane
C.
Mitochondria
D.
Cytoplasm
Answer: _________
Question 69:
Live vaccines include all of the following except:
A.
BCG
B.
Salk polio vaccine
C.
Measles vaccine
D.
Rubella vaccine
Answer: _________
Question 70:
Cancer chemotherapy can be curative in all of the following disseminated neoplasms except
A.
Hodgkin's disease
B.
Choriocarcinoma
C.
Colonic cancer
D.
Testicular cancer
Answer: _________
Question 71:
What is the effect of strychnine sulphate on spinal cord?
A.
Stimulation
B.
Depression
C.
Contraction
D.
Relaxation
Answer: _________
Question 72:
Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to the firstpass metabolism
A.
Oral
B.
Sublingual
C.
Subcutaneous
D.
Rectal
Answer: _________
Question 73:
Which of the following is the safest anaesthetics?
A.
Halothane
B.
Ether
C.
Cyclopropane
D.
Nitrous oxide
Answer: _________
Question 74:
The therapeutic response to antidepressant drugs is usually over a period of
A.
2 - 3 Days
B.
2 - 3 Weeks
C.
24 Hours
D.
2 - 3 Month
Answer: _________
Question 75:
Presently, Penicillin is obtained from a high yielding mutant of . . . . . . . .
A.
P. notatum
B.
P. falciparum
C.
P. chrysogenum
D.
T. pallidum
Answer: _________
Question 76:
Drug prevents mast cells granulation in Asthma is:
A.
Ipratropium Br
B.
Nedocromil Na
C.
Levalbuterol
D.
Fluticasone
Answer: _________
Question 77:
Potassium sparing diuretics block . . . . . . . . channels in the luminal membrane of the principal cells in the late distal tubule and collecting duct.
A.
Na +
B.
K +
C.
2Cl -
D.
Mg +
Answer: _________
Question 78:
Which one is an advantage of oral route of administration?
A.
Sometimes complete drug is not absorbed
B.
Economical, sterilisation is not required
C.
Unpleasant taste of drugs
D.
Not effective in emergencies
Answer: _________
Question 79:
Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:
A.
Oral
B.
Transdermal
C.
Rectal
D.
Intraduodenal
Answer: _________
Question 80:
The following Ergot derivative is used for treatment of acute migraine attack
A.
Paracetamol
B.
Sumatriptan
C.
Ergotamine
D.
Metoclopramide
Answer: _________
Question 81:
Chlorhexidine is used in . . . . . . . . % solution as a hand wash and for aseptic dressing of operation sites before surgery.
A.
4
B.
0.4
C.
40
D.
0.04
Answer: _________
Question 82:
Parkinsonism is characterized by
A.
Rigidity
B.
Tremor
C.
Hypokinesia
D.
All the above
Answer: _________
Question 83:
Choose the anticancer drug, a pyrimidine antagonist
A.
Fluorouracil
B.
Mercaptopurine
C.
Thioguanine
D.
Methotrexate
Answer: _________
Question 84:
Which of the following agent is related to hallucinogens?
A.
Morphine
B.
LSD
C.
Cocaine
D.
Opium
Answer: _________
Question 85:
Which one is not a classification of general anaesthesia?
A.
Gaseous
B.
Intravenous
C.
Inhalation
D.
Intramuscular
Answer: _________
Question 86:
An example of sulfonyl urea is
A.
Metformin
B.
Tolbutamide
C.
Rosiglitazone
D.
Repaglinide
Answer: _________
Question 87:
Plasminogen activator is
A.
Striptokinate
B.
Tranexamic acid
C.
Aminocaproic acid
D.
Heparin
Answer: _________
Question 88:
Phenyl ketonuria is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. This refers to
A.
Hormonal overproduction
B.
Non disjunction
C.
Atrophy of endocrine glands
D.
Inherited lack of an enzyme
Answer: _________
Question 89:
What is the effect of Digoxin on heart rate?
A.
Increases
B.
Decreases
C.
Stops
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 90:
The medicinal agents used for the increase in urine output is known as
A.
Urinary antiseptics
B.
Diuretics
C.
Stimulants
D.
Antiseptics
Answer: _________
Question 91:
Succinyl choline chloride is a/an
A.
Hypnotic
B.
Diuretic
C.
Muscle relaxant
D.
Antibiotic
Answer: _________
Question 92:
Which of the following factors associated with aggregation of platelets?
A.
Arachidonic acid
B.
Bradykinin
C.
Leukotriene
D.
Thromboxane A 2
Answer: _________
Question 93:
. . . . . . . . are employed for allergy testing, for the assessment of histamine sensitivity, and for testing the function of gastric secretion.
A.
Histamine antagonists
B.
Antihistamines
C.
Histamine agonists
D.
Histamine
Answer: _________
Question 94:
Choose the drug which is used in the treatment of Hodgkio's disease and leukaemia in children
A.
Vinca
B.
Ginger
C.
Linseed
D.
Digitalis
Answer: _________
Question 95:
A drug that decrease the activity of another drug is called
A.
Antagonist
B.
Agonist
C.
Adverse reaction
D.
Synergic
Answer: _________
Question 96:
Indicate the non-narcotic analgesic, which lacks an anti-inflammatory effect.
A.
Naloxone
B.
Paracetamol
C.
Metamizole
D.
Ecospirin
Answer: _________
Question 97:
Drug of choice in grandmal epilepsy are
A.
Phenytoin & sodium valproate
B.
Sodium valproate & carbamazepine
C.
Carbamazepine & phenobarbitone
D.
Phenobarbitone & phenytoin
Answer: _________
Question 98:
Select an endocrine drug which is a steroidal derivative.
A.
Gonadorelin
B.
Insulin
C.
Levothyroxine
D.
Hydrocortisone
Answer: _________
Question 99:
Drug obtained from animal source
A.
Dicoumarol
B.
Heparin
C.
Cocaine
D.
Insulin-human
Answer: _________
Question 100:
The therapeutic index of a drug is measured in its . . . . . . . .
A.
Safety
B.
Potency
C.
Efficacy
D.
Dose Variability
Answer: _________
Answer Key
1:
B
2:
A
3:
C
4:
A
5:
C
6:
D
7:
D
8:
D
9:
A
10:
D
11:
A
12:
B
13:
B
14:
C
15:
D
16:
C
17:
D
18:
A
19:
A
20:
A
21:
C
22:
A
23:
A
24:
D
25:
A
26:
D
27:
B
28:
A
29:
D
30:
A
31:
A
32:
B
33:
B
34:
D
35:
A
36:
B
37:
B
38:
C
39:
A
40:
D
41:
B
42:
C
43:
B
44:
D
45:
B
Solution: A. Paracetamol: Paracetamol is not commonly associated with causing diarrhoea as a side effect. It is generally well-tolerated and does not typically cause gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhoea. B. Antibiotics: Antibiotics are known to disrupt the natural balance of bacteria in the gut, which can lead to diarrhoea as a common side effect. Antibiotics can kill both harmful and beneficial bacteria, leading to an imbalance in the gut flora and resulting in diarrhoea. C. Drug used for vomiting: The specific drug used for vomiting is not mentioned, but in general, drugs used for vomiting (antiemetics) do not commonly cause diarrhoea as a side effect. The side effects of antiemetics can vary depending on the specific drug used. D. Antacid: Antacids are used to neutralize stomach acid and relieve symptoms of heartburn and indigestion. While antacids can cause gastrointestinal side effects such as constipation or diarrhoea in some cases, it is not a commonly reported side effect. Therefore, the correct answer is: B. Antibiotics
46:
C
47:
D
48:
C
49:
A
50:
C
51:
A
52:
A
53:
D
54:
B
55:
B
56:
C
57:
A
58:
C
59:
A
60:
D
61:
A
62:
D
63:
D
64:
D
65:
D
66:
A
67:
C
68:
A
69:
B
70:
C
71:
A
Solution: Strychnine sulphate is a toxic alkaloid that affects the central nervous system. When strychnine is ingested or enters the body, it acts as a potent stimulant on the spinal cord and the central nervous system. Strychnine blocks the inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine in the spinal cord, which normally suppresses nerve impulses. By blocking the inhibitory signals, strychnine allows excitatory signals to be transmitted without restraint, leading to hyperexcitability of the spinal cord. This excessive excitation of the spinal cord results in severe muscle spasms and convulsions. The spasms primarily affect the muscles involved in controlling posture and movement, leading to rigid and jerky movements. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Stimulation , as strychnine sulphate stimulates the spinal cord by blocking inhibitory signals and causing hyperexcitability, which manifests as muscle spasms and convulsions.
72:
A
73:
B
74:
B
75:
C
76:
B
77:
A
78:
B
79:
C
80:
C
81:
A
82:
D
83:
A
84:
B
85:
D
86:
B
87:
A
88:
D
Solution: Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. Inborn errors of metabolism are genetic disorders that result from abnormalities in specific enzymes or metabolic pathways. In the case of PKU, individuals inherit a genetic mutation that leads to a lack or deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. Phenylalanine hydroxylase is responsible for converting the amino acid phenylalanine into another amino acid called tyrosine. However, in individuals with PKU, the enzyme is either missing or not functioning properly, which leads to the accumulation of phenylalanine in the body. The inherited lack of phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme activity results in the inability to properly metabolize phenylalanine. Without treatment, high levels of phenylalanine can build up in the blood and tissues, leading to various health problems, including intellectual disabilities, developmental delays, and neurological issues. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Inherited lack of an enzyme , as phenylketonuria is characterized by a genetic deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase, which is essential for the normal metabolism of phenylalanine.
89:
A
Solution: Digoxin is a medication used primarily in the treatment of heart failure and atrial arrhythmias. One of its key effects is to decrease the heart rate by increasing vagal tone, which slows down the conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node. This leads to a reduction in the heart rate , which is particularly beneficial in conditions like atrial fibrillation where the heart rate is abnormally high. Digoxin also increases the force of contraction of the heart muscle , making it more efficient at pumping blood. Therefore, the correct effect of Digoxin on the heart rate is decrease .
90:
B
91:
C
92:
D
93:
C
94:
A
95:
A
96:
B
97:
A
98:
D
99:
B
100:
A