Question 1:
The first level of regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes is
A.
Transcription
B.
DNA methylation and chromatin structure
C.
RNA processing
D.
Post transcriptional modification
Answer: _________
Question 2:
Enzyme which digest nucleic acid by hydrolyzing phosphodiester bonds are called as
A.
Nucleases
B.
Deoxyribonucleases (if substrate is DNA)
C.
Ribonucleases (if substrate is RNA)
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 3:
The size of the maximum DNA insert that can be cloned in a YAC
A.
< 300 kb
B.
100 - 300 kb
C.
70 - 100 kb
D.
200 - 2000 kb
Answer: _________
Question 4:
In a double stranded molecule of DNA, the ratio of purines : pyrimidines is
A.
Variable
B.
Determined by the base sequence in RNA
C.
Genetically determined
D.
Always 1 : 1
Answer: _________
Question 5:
The smallest plant genome identified
A.
Chlorella
B.
Oryza sativa
C.
Arabidopsis
D.
Ground nut
Answer: _________
Question 6:
Which one of the following amino acid has crucial role in the variability of protein structure?
A.
Glycine
B.
Cysteine
C.
Aspartic acid
D.
Glutamic acid
Answer: _________
Question 7:
Transcription is the process of
A.
Synthesizing a DNA molecule from RNA template
B.
Using DNA strand as a template to synthesize a complementary RNA molecule
C.
Using DNA strand as template to synthesize identical RNA molecule
D.
Synthesizing a protein using information carried in the nucleotide sequence of a messenger RNA
Answer: _________
Question 8:
The ability of proteins to absorb ultraviolet light is predominantly due to the presence of
A.
Disulphide bond
B.
Hydrophobic amino acids
C.
Tryptophan
D.
Hydrophilic amino acids
Answer: _________
Question 9:
Which of the following statement about the ribosome complex is correct?
A.
Small subunit binds an mRNA and large subunit joint with the mRNA/small subunit complex to form a complete ribosome
B.
The large ribosomal subunit has a P site (peptidyl site) that holds the growing polypeptide chain and an A site (aminoacyl site) that binds the next amino acid to be added to the growing polypeptide chain
C.
The additon of new amino acid in the A site to the growing polypeptide chain is catalyzed by one of the enzymes that form the large ribosomal subunit
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 10:
DNA polymerase involved in general DNA replication in eukaryotes is
A.
α
B.
β
C.
A and B both
D.
γ
Answer: _________
Question 11:
The specificity of initiator $$tRNA$$xa0 but absent in elongator $$tRNA,left( {tRNA_m^{met}}
ight)$$ xa0xa0 is conferred by
A.
3 G : C pairs present in anti codon stem
B.
2 G : C pairs
C.
3 C : C pairs
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 12:
In eukaryotes, the small subunit of ribosome along with cap binding proteins (CBP) (eIF-4F) binds at
A.
Shine-Dalgarno sequence
B.
Kozak sequence (ACCAUGG)
C.
Promoter
D.
Enhancer
Answer: _________
Question 13:
Non-coding DNA found between genes is often referred to as
A.
Spacer DNA
B.
Intron
C.
Exon
D.
Promoter
Answer: _________
Question 14:
Three types of RNA involved in comprising the structural and functional core for protein synthesis, serving as a template for translation, and transporting amino acid, respectively, are
A.
mRNA, tRNA, rRNA
B.
rRNA, tRNA, mRNA
C.
tRNA, rRNA, mRNA
D.
rRNA, mRNA, tRNA
Answer: _________
Question 15:
Mutations in bacterial promoter at -10 sequence (pribnow box) affects
A.
The efficiency of initial binding
B.
The rate of open complex formation
C.
Elongation of transcription
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 16:
Degeneracy in genetic code displays
A.
First base degeneracy
B.
Second base degeneracy
C.
Third base degeneracy
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 17:
At the completion of DNA replication, each newly synthesized DNA strand is
A.
Identical in sequence to the strand opposite which it was synthesized
B.
Complementary in sequence to the strand opposite which it was synthesized
C.
A hybrid strand consisting both DNA and RNA strand
D.
Oriented in the same direction as the strand which it was synthesized
Answer: _________
Question 18:
Homologous genes present in different organisms are called
A.
Paralog
B.
Duplicate genes
C.
Ortholog
D.
Xenolog
Answer: _________
Question 19:
The C-value paradox may be explained by the
A.
More number of genes with more complexity
B.
Predominance of non-coding DNA
C.
Both A and B
D.
Non existence of coding regions
Answer: _________
Question 20:
A virus whose RNA genome has a DNA intermediate as part of its replication cycle
A.
Retro virus
B.
Cauliflower mosaic virus
C.
Vaccinia virus
D.
Adenovirus
Answer: _________
Question 21:
In most bacterial mRNAs, the initiation codon is preceded by a special sequence called
A.
5'-Methylguanosine cap
B.
Poly A tail
C.
Ribosome binding site
D.
A and B both
Answer: _________
Question 22:
Proteins transported to nucleus requires
A.
Nuclear localization sequences
B.
N-terminal transit sequence
C.
Transit peptide
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 23:
In E. coli, if there is no CCA at 3' end tRNA, it will be added by the enzyme
A.
tRNA nucleotidyl transferase
B.
Transposase
C.
Nuclease
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 24:
Which one of the following is not directly involved in the process known as translation?
A.
Peptidyl transferase
B.
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
C.
mRNA
D.
DNA
Answer: _________
Question 25:
Which of the following statement about eukaryote RNA polymerases is correct?
A.
RNA polymerase I (RNA Pol I) is located in the nucleolus and transcribes the 28S, 18S, 5.8S rRNA genes
B.
RNA polymerase II (RNA Pol II) is located in the nucleoplasm and transcribes protein coding genes to yield pre-mRNA and also the genes encoding small nuclear RNAs (snRNA) involved in RNA processing
C.
RNA polymerase III (RNA Pol III) is located in the nucleoplasm and transcribes genes for tRNA, 5S rRNA, and the 7S rRNA
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 26:
The 5' upstream of a transcription start contains
A.
Poly A tail
B.
Promoter
C.
Intron
D.
Exon
Answer: _________
Question 27:
Open promoter complex comprises
A.
RNA polymerase bound on cis acting element promoter
B.
local unwinding of DNA at active genic region
C.
Both A and B
D.
Proteins started to open up chromatin
Answer: _________
Question 28:
The length of DNA present in nucleosome core particle
A.
146 bp
B.
165 bp
C.
200 bp
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 29:
The reduction of nitrate to nitrite in the cytosol is catalyzed by the enzyme
A.
Nitrite reductase
B.
Glutamine synthetase
C.
Nitrate reductase
D.
Glutamate dehydrogenase
Answer: _________
Question 30:
The term "gene" was coined by
A.
Wilhelm Johannensen
B.
Morgan
C.
Benzer
D.
William Bateson
Answer: _________
Question 31:
In clover leaf model of $$tRNA$$xa0, $$psi $$ present in $$Tpsi C$$xa0 loop represents
A.
Pseudouridine or pseudouracil
B.
Dihydrouridine or dihydrouracil (D-loop)
C.
Both A and B
D.
Uracil
Answer: _________
Question 32:
Which of the following steps are involved in the process of template preparation during DNA replication?
A.
Unwinding of double helix
B.
Breakage of hydrogen bonds
C.
Coating of single stranded template to prevent them from reannealing
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 33:
Because of base interactions, the outside of the helix is not smooth and it is termed as
A.
Major groove
B.
Minor groove
C.
A and B both
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 34:
Initiator codon (AUG) always encode the amino acid
A.
Metheonine
B.
N-formyl metheonine
C.
Both A and B
D.
Not code for any amino acid
Answer: _________
Question 35:
Which one of the following component of RNA polymerase is NOT common to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A.
α
B.
β
C.
β'
D.
σ
Answer: _________
Question 36:
The number of bases per turn of the helix in A form DNA is
A.
20
B.
10
C.
34
D.
3.4
Answer: _________
Question 37:
Based on buoyant density gradient centrifugation, the mammalian genome is divided into five regions which are > 300 kbp in length, characterized by relatively homogenous compositions. These regions are
A.
Isochores
B.
Isozymes
C.
Isocentre
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 38:
The enzyme which synthesize RNA primer for DNA synthesis is
A.
DNA primase
B.
Primase
C.
Primer synthase
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 39:
The role of guide RNA (gRNA) is recognized in
A.
RNA editing
B.
Antisense RNA
C.
RNA splicing
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 40:
The form or conformation of DNA double helix which is prevalent in vivo is
A.
B-DNA
B.
A-DNA
C.
Z-DNA
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 41:
The sugar residues are covalently joined by
A.
5' → 3' phosphodiester bonds
B.
H 2 bonds
C.
Phosphorylated ions
D.
Covalent bonds
Answer: _________
Question 42:
The daughter cells receive duplex DNA as
A.
Both strands from parents
B.
Both strands are newly synthesized
C.
One from parent and one is newly synthesized
D.
Can not be predicted
Answer: _________
Question 43:
Molecular markers are useful in
A.
Gene or disease marker maps
B.
Gene tracking
C.
Marker-marker mapping
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 44:
In eukaryotes, which DNA polymerase is involved in extending the RNA primer and providing template for an accessory factor and replication factor, which control the processivity in lagging strand?
A.
α
B.
β
C.
δ
D.
γ
Answer: _________
Question 45:
Which one of the following base is present only in DNA?
A.
Thymine
B.
Uracil
C.
5-methylcytosine
D.
Inosine
Answer: _________
Question 46:
Kinase reactions
A.
Inhibit ATP breakdown
B.
Involve the addition or removal of a phosphate group
C.
Involve the addition or removal of a ketone group
D.
Involve the addition or removal of an amino acid to a polypeptide chain
Answer: _________
Question 47:
The backbone of double helix DNA is
A.
Sugar phosphate units
B.
Nitrogenous bases
C.
Nucleosides
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Answer Key
1:
B
2:
D
3:
D
4:
D
5:
C
6:
A
7:
B
8:
C
9:
D
10:
C
11:
A
12:
B
13:
A
14:
D
15:
B
16:
D
17:
B
18:
C
19:
B
20:
A
21:
C
22:
A
23:
A
24:
D
25:
D
26:
B
27:
C
28:
A
29:
C
30:
A
31:
A
32:
D
33:
C
34:
C
35:
D
36:
B
37:
A
38:
A
39:
A
40:
A
41:
A
42:
C
43:
D
44:
A
45:
A
46:
B
47:
A