Question 1:
Pharmacists should caution patients who are taking Niacin that this drug
A.
Stains the urine bright red
B.
Should be taken with meals
C.
Causes muscular weakness
D.
Should be taken before meals
Answer: _________
Question 2:
The safe range of potassium levels in patient with digoxin therapy is
A.
2.5 - 5 ng/dL
B.
3.5 - 5 mEq/L
C.
0.8 - 2 ng/mL
D.
3.5 - 5 mEq/mL
Answer: _________
Question 3:
In . . . . . . . . type of formulary, the information given under each monograph is subject to local needs:
A.
Private formulary
B.
National formulary
C.
Both A and B
D.
None
Answer: _________
Question 4:
The human body does not produce
A.
Minerals
B.
Enzymes
C.
Proteins
D.
Hormones
Answer: _________
Question 5:
On treating the cotton fibers with iodinated zinc chloride solution, they tum . . . . . . . .
A.
Red
B.
Green
C.
Blue
D.
Violet
Answer: _________
Question 6:
Gold in rheumatoid arthritis
A.
Can cause regression of degenerative lesions of this disease
B.
Can reduce the concentration of rheumatoid factor
C.
Does not halt the progress of the disease
D.
Is employed as first line therapy
Answer: _________
Question 7:
The antisesense drug used for the treatment of cytomegalovirus in patient with AIDS is:
A.
Formivirsen
B.
Refludan
C.
Filgrastim
D.
Kogenate
Answer: _________
Question 8:
A pharmacist cannot be a . . . . . . . .
A.
Health promoter
B.
General practitioner
C.
Patient helper
D.
Counsellor
Answer: _________
Question 9:
Pick the odd one from the following types of dressing
A.
Bandage
B.
Sanitation
C.
Absorbent
D.
Protective
Answer: _________
Question 10:
MAO inhibitors act by inhibiting metabolism of
A.
Norepinephrine
B.
Epinephrine
C.
Dopamine
D.
All
Answer: _________
Question 11:
Ribavirin + Interferon Alfa-2B is given in
A.
Monotherapy
B.
Combination therapy
C.
Hepato-protectives
D.
All of these
Answer: _________
Question 12:
Laminar is flow is always
A.
Vertical
B.
Horizontal
C.
Both A and B
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 13:
Mechanism of interaction of Aspirin and probenecid is
A.
Both compete for same binding site on plasm albumin
B.
It potentiates the activity of anticoagulants by interfering with binding site and decreasing platelets activity
C.
Change in pH of urine towards alkaline, which inhibits re-absorption at renal tubules
D.
All of these
Answer: _________
Question 14:
Haemostatic forceps is also known as
A.
Artery foreceps
B.
Swab holding foreceps
C.
Moynihan's foreceps
D.
Ordinary foreceps
Answer: _________
Question 15:
CSS required in the area of . . . . . . . .
A.
Operation theater
B.
Medical
C.
Ward
D.
Bed side area
Answer: _________
Question 16:
Hemorrhagic cystitis (Bladder toxicity) commonly occurs after administration of:
A.
Melphalan
B.
Cyclophosphamide
C.
Mercaptopurne
D.
Methotrexates
Answer: _________
Question 17:
. . . . . . . . is the study of the normal mind and mental processes.
A.
Physiology
B.
Psychiatry
C.
Rheumatology
D.
Psychology
Answer: _________
Question 18:
After the formulary is published, two copies of it are sent to the . . . . . . . .
A.
Indian Hospital Pharmacist Association
B.
American Society of Hospital Pharmacist
C.
World Health Organisation
D.
American Society of Health System Pharmacists
Answer: _________
Question 19:
Which of the following factors of bioavailability is not related to physiological factors?
A.
pH of GIT
B.
Drug solubility
C.
GI transit
D.
Protein binding
Answer: _________
Question 20:
NONLIN is a computer program that is used for predicting the . . . . . . . .
A.
Pharmaceutical parameters
B.
Pharmacokinetic parameters
C.
Therapeutic parameters
D.
Pharmacodynamic parameters
Answer: _________
Question 21:
Mercury compounds exert their toxic effects by tying up with
A.
Carboxyl groups
B.
Bouble bonds
C.
Sulfhydryl groups
D.
Lactones
Answer: _________
Question 22:
Surgical guaze included under
A.
Primary wound dressings
B.
Absorbents
C.
Bandages
D.
Adhesive tapes
Answer: _________
Question 23:
Therapeutic drug monitoring is important for drugs having . . . . . . . .
A.
Narrow therapeutic index
B.
Drugs administered in critically ill patients
C.
Patients with chronic diseases
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 24:
. . . . . . . . can be easily allocated values in rupees or other currency as per the resources consumed.
A.
Equilibrium
B.
Non-monetary costs
C.
Monetary costs
D.
Cost analysis
Answer: _________
Question 25:
Which of the following antacids should be avoided by patients suffering from severe constipation?
A.
Aluminium hydroxide gel
B.
Magnesium hydroxide
C.
Senna
D.
Magnesium carbonate
Answer: _________
Question 26:
Non-clinical support include
A.
Linen
B.
Catering
C.
Both A and B
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 27:
Which container is used for SVP
A.
Glass
B.
Umble colour
C.
Plastic bottles
D.
Any container is used
Answer: _________
Question 28:
Total cost associated with a programme where both costs and consequences are measured in monetary terms is called as
A.
Cost-effectiveness analysis
B.
Cost-benefit analysis
C.
Cost-utility analysis
D.
Discounting
Answer: _________
Question 29:
Preparations are avoided during pregnancy
A.
Vitamin E
B.
Vitamin A
C.
Folic acid
D.
Zinc
Answer: _________
Question 30:
An oral hypoglycaemic sulphonyl urea drug
A.
Phenformin
B.
Acarbose
C.
Guargum
D.
Tolbutamide
Answer: _________
Question 31:
Which of the following is an important document of the hospital containing a collective list of drugs?
A.
Drug information bulletin
B.
Hospital register
C.
Pharmacopoeia
D.
Hospital formulary
Answer: _________
Question 32:
Agonist is a drug that has:
A.
Both affinity and intrinsic activity
B.
Only affinity
C.
Only intrinsic activity
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 33:
Hypo dermoclysis refers to which route of drug administration
A.
I. M.
B.
I. D.
C.
S. C.
D.
I. V.
Answer: _________
Question 34:
A 'chair person' is appointed from
A.
Nurses
B.
Pharmacist
C.
Physician
D.
Administrators
Answer: _________
Question 35:
The capacity of a drug to cause foetal abnormalities is termed as
A.
Teratogenicity
B.
Mutagenicity
C.
Pathogenicity
D.
Carcinogenicity
Answer: _________
Question 36:
A specific narcotic antagonist is
A.
Meperidine
B.
Nalorphine
C.
Universal antidote
D.
EDTA
Answer: _________
Question 37:
Anti depressant that should not be taken at bed time is:
A.
Doxepin
B.
Amitriptylline
C.
Nortriptylline
D.
Protriptylline
Answer: _________
Question 38:
Which of the following is not the part of secondary source citations?
A.
PubMed
B.
Toxline
C.
Pharmacotherapy
D.
Medline
Answer: _________
Question 39:
Choose the hospital in which tradition system is present
A.
Unani hospital
B.
Homeopathic hospital
C.
Ayurvedic hospital
D.
Allopathic hospital
Answer: _________
Question 40:
Find the odd man out.
A.
Catgut
B.
Mono filament
C.
Brocafile
D.
Kangaroo
Answer: _________
Question 41:
Which of the following drugs is not used to treat depression?
A.
Paroxetin
B.
Sertaline
C.
Nefazodone
D.
Zolpidem
Answer: _________
Question 42:
Which of the following drug increases serum concentration of Quinidine?
A.
Cimetidine
B.
NaHCO 3
C.
Na, CO 3
D.
Mg(OH)
Answer: _________
Question 43:
A . . . . . . . . pharmacy is established when the out-patient department and the pharmacy are geographically separate.
A.
Emergency
B.
Referred
C.
OPD
D.
Separate out-patient
Answer: _________
Question 44:
Which one of the following is not a salient feature of a hospital pharmacy?
A.
Supply of pharmaceutical drugs
B.
Dispensing of narcotic products
C.
Design of a new drug
D.
Supply and storage of ancillary products
Answer: _________
Question 45:
Which of the following responsibility of the clinical pharmacist is indirect patient care area?
A.
Supervision of drug administration techniques
B.
Providing drug information to physicians and nurses
C.
Identify drugs brought into the hospital by patients
D.
Reviewing of each patient's drug administration forms periodically to ensure all doses have been administered
Answer: _________
Question 46:
In tablet formulation the temp. and % R. H. is
A.
25° - 30°C & 45%
B.
20° - 30°C & 70%
C.
20° - 40°C & 45%
D.
20° - 40°C & 70%
Answer: _________
Question 47:
Overdose of atropine sulphate is treated by administration of
A.
Pilocarpine
B.
Physiostigmine
C.
Phenytoin
D.
Fosphenytoin
Answer: _________
Question 48:
The . . . . . . . . is the head of pharmacy who reports to the administrator.
A.
Chief hospital pharmacist
B.
Retail pharmacist
C.
Wholesale pharmacist
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 49:
. . . . . . . . is an example of civil hospital.
A.
Elite hospital
B.
Budget hospital
C.
Private hospital
D.
Teaching hospital
Answer: _________
Question 50:
Envelop method is used for
A.
Charged floor stock
B.
Non-Charged floor stock
C.
Both
D.
None
Answer: _________
Question 51:
Patch-clamp method is used for.
A.
Recording ion current flow throught single channels
B.
Studying the structure of cell membrane
C.
Recording biphasic action potential
D.
Recording compound action potential
Answer: _________
Question 52:
Billings methods is a method of
A.
Ventilation
B.
Family planning
C.
Waste disposal
D.
First aid
Answer: _________
Question 53:
The cardiac effect and toxicity due to potassium depletion enhances when digoxin interacts with:
A.
Acetazolamide
B.
Furosemide
C.
Spironolactone
D.
Phenylbutazone
Answer: _________
Question 54:
The nature and . . . . . . . . of ADRs is periodically evaluated to determine the benefit-risk ratio of medicinal products.
A.
Intensity
B.
Duration
C.
Onset
D.
Frequency
Answer: _________
Question 55:
Scavenger cells are
A.
Mast cells
B.
Macrophage
C.
Natural killer cells
D.
Neutrophils
Answer: _________
Question 56:
Gatifloxacin has been withdrawn from market because:
A.
Causes erectile dysfunction
B.
Causes peripheral vascular disease
C.
Causes renal failure
D.
Hyper glycemia in elderly
Answer: _________
Question 57:
An hospital with 100 beds is
A.
Small hospital
B.
Large hospital
C.
Medium hospital
D.
Very small hospital
Answer: _________
Question 58:
Health accessories are
A.
Wheel chair
B.
Walkers
C.
Canes
D.
All of these
Answer: _________
Question 59:
Which of the following tissues has the greatest capacity to biotransform drugs?
A.
Brain
B.
Kidney
C.
Liver
D.
Lung
Answer: _________
Question 60:
State the meaning of Necrosis
A.
An agent that enhances the flow of bile into the intestine
B.
Agent that helps to expel the gases from GI tract
C.
Death of cells or tissues
D.
An agent that produces evacuation of gallbladder
Answer: _________
Question 61:
. . . . . . . . occurs after the proliferation of synovial cells in joints.
A.
Inflammatory pathways initiated
B.
Pannus formation
C.
Cartilage destruction
D.
Bony erosion
Answer: _________
Question 62:
Which one of these is a genetically determined adverse drug reactions?
A.
Addication
B.
Teratogenecity
C.
Carcinogenicity
D.
Idiosyncracy
Answer: _________
Question 63:
Richardsons and Deavers are used for . . . . . . . .
A.
Organ retraction
B.
Abdominal surgery
C.
Pelvic surgery
D.
Superficial abdominal surgery
Answer: _________
Question 64:
How many pharmacist required for 50 bed hospital?
A.
3 pharmacist
B.
5 pharmacist
C.
6 pharmacist
D.
9 pharmacist
Answer: _________
Question 65:
Which of following is used in radiation sterilization
A.
α-rays
B.
β-rays
C.
X-rays
D.
Gamma rays
Answer: _________
Question 66:
After completion of general check up the patients are asked to go for . . . . . . . . for accurate diagnosis.
A.
Clinical
B.
Pathological
C.
Both A and B
D.
None
Answer: _________
Question 67:
The absorbed poison can be removed by giving . . . . . . . . which increases the urine output or by altering the urine pH as acidic drugs are excreted faster in alkaline urine and vice versa.
A.
Saline solution
B.
Ipecacuanha powder
C.
Diuretics
D.
Apomorphine hydrochloride injection
Answer: _________
Question 68:
One among the following is a communicable disease.
A.
Cancer
B.
Diabetes
C.
Hypertension
D.
Filariasis
Answer: _________
Question 69:
Which of the following drug is not present in the emergency box?
A.
Aminophylline
B.
Digoxin
C.
Hydromorphon
D.
Heparin
Answer: _________
Question 70:
All are the names given to the molecular mechanism of skeletal muscle contration Except
A.
Walkalong theory
B.
Fluid mosaic theory
C.
Ratchet theory
D.
Sliding filament theory
Answer: _________
Question 71:
Who among the following is referred to as the Father of Indian Pharmacy?
A.
H. G. Khorana
B.
R. N. Chopra
C.
M. L. Schroff
D.
Asima Chatterjee
Answer: _________
Question 72:
Absorbtion of iron is enhanced by the following except:
A.
Sugars
B.
Vitamin C
C.
Tannates
D.
Citric acid
Answer: _________
Question 73:
. . . . . . . . is a substance which can be easily mounted by application of heat and pressure.
A.
Plastic
B.
Glass
C.
Borosilicate glass
D.
Thermostat material
Answer: _________
Question 74:
Toxin induced muscular twitching and convulsions treated with
A.
Dicobalt edetate
B.
Diazepam
C.
Dimercaprol
D.
Flumazenil
Answer: _________
Question 75:
Capsofungin is classified as a/an
A.
Antiseptic
B.
Anti depressant
C.
Anti helminthic
D.
Anti fungal
Answer: _________
Question 76:
. . . . . . . . is a state when an individual shows reduced responsiveness to the pharmacological response of a drug due to a prior exposure to that drug.
A.
Cross tolerance
B.
Drug dependence
C.
Drug tolerance
D.
Drug habituation
Answer: _________
Question 77:
Air sampling method is done under
A.
Physical control
B.
Biological control
C.
Personal control
D.
None
Answer: _________
Question 78:
The intake of a minimum of 4 to 10 drugs at the same time on a regular therapeutic basis is called
A.
Drug overdose
B.
Drug abuse
C.
Polypharmacy
D.
Drug overuse
Answer: _________
Question 79:
How are prescription medicines different from OTC ones?
A.
They contain much smaller amounts of active ingredients
B.
They don't contain dyes or preservatives
C.
They're unsafe for use without medical supervision
D.
They can be toxic
Answer: _________
Question 80:
The soft, viscous and pasty preparations applied to skin when they are hot is called
A.
Ointment
B.
Poultices
C.
Creams
D.
Pastes
Answer: _________
Question 81:
The term ESR stands for
A.
Extensive Sibilanr Ronchi
B.
Extra-Sensory Receptors
C.
Equal Sinus Rhythm
D.
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
Answer: _________
Question 82:
A pharmacy professional should be
A.
Incapable of lateral thinking
B.
Not approachable
C.
Unavailable
D.
Observant
Answer: _________
Question 83:
Patient should regularly checked for visual activity with which of the following drugs?
A.
Rifampin
B.
Ethambutol
C.
Pyrazinamide
D.
Cycloserine
Answer: _________
Question 84:
Renal disease causes anemia due to lack of
A.
Erythropoietin
B.
Folic acid
C.
Vit B 12
D.
Iron
Answer: _________
Question 85:
NONLINE' is a programme which predicts
A.
Utilisation of medicine
B.
Pharmacokinetic parameters
C.
Batch number and date of expiry
D.
Stock position & shelf life
Answer: _________
Question 86:
Antidote used in copper poisoning is
A.
Desferrioxamine
B.
D-penicillamine
C.
Atropine
D.
B. A. L.
Answer: _________
Question 87:
Epotien alpha is a glycoprotien that stimualates production of
A.
RBC
B.
WBC
C.
Platelets
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 88:
Bisacodyl should never be given to patient with
A.
Dairy products
B.
Milk
C.
Antacids
D.
All the above
Answer: _________
Question 89:
Preservatives used in parenteral preparation
A.
Chlorocresol
B.
Benzalkonium chloride
C.
Benzyl alcohol
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 90:
Which of the following drugs should not be used by patients with Sulfonamide allergy
A.
Thiazide diuretics
B.
Dapsone
C.
Diazoxide
D.
All the above
Answer: _________
Question 91:
Normal range of chloride is
A.
95 to 105 mEq/1
B.
135 to 147 mEg/1
C.
1.6 to 2.4 mEg/1
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 92:
Salicylic acid is used primarily as a/an
A.
Analgesic
B.
Keratolytic agent
C.
Antipyretic
D.
Cough suppressant
Answer: _________
Question 93:
Metabolite of drug causes methemoglobinaemia
A.
Imipramine
B.
Dapsone
C.
Paracetamol
D.
Nicotine
Answer: _________
Question 94:
. . . . . . . . is a major role of clinical pharmacist
A.
Premarketing surveillance
B.
Postmarketing surveillance
C.
Preclinical study
D.
Patient Counseling
Answer: _________
Question 95:
A rising creatinine level indicates
A.
Hypopituitarism
B.
Psoriasis
C.
Kidney damage
D.
Obstructive jaundice
Answer: _________
Question 96:
Advice must be given to patients while using MAO Inhibitors
A.
Do not drive vehicle
B.
Avoid cheese, alcoholic beverages and liver or yeast extract
C.
This laxative may color the urine and faeces pink
D.
Do not work with dangerous machinery
Answer: _________
Question 97:
Values of haemoglobin below the normal range indicate the conditions of . . . . . . . .
A.
Leukaemia
B.
Dehydration
C.
Polycythaemia
D.
Diphtheria
Answer: _________
Question 98:
Which of the following medications are associated with tinnitus due to toxicity?
A.
Paracetamol
B.
Phenytoin
C.
Phenobarbitone
D.
Salicylate
Answer: _________
Question 99:
Bone plate is made up of
A.
Non-ionisable metal
B.
Rubber
C.
Plastic
D.
Metal
Answer: _________
Question 100:
A drug that prevents infection and decay is called as
A.
Antiseptics
B.
Anti malarial drug
C.
Germicide
D.
Liver
Answer: _________
Answer Key
1:
B
2:
C
3:
A
4:
A
5:
D
6:
B
7:
A
8:
B
9:
B
10:
D
11:
B
12:
C
13:
A
14:
A
15:
A
16:
B
17:
D
18:
B
19:
B
20:
B
21:
C
22:
A
23:
D
24:
C
25:
A
26:
C
27:
C
28:
B
29:
B
30:
D
31:
D
32:
A
33:
C
34:
C
35:
A
36:
B
37:
D
38:
C
39:
C
40:
D
41:
D
42:
A
43:
D
44:
C
45:
D
46:
A
47:
B
48:
A
49:
B
50:
A
51:
A
52:
B
53:
B
54:
D
55:
C
56:
D
57:
C
58:
D
59:
C
60:
C
61:
B
62:
D
Solution: Idiosyncracy refers to genetically determined adverse drug reactions. It means that certain individuals may have unique and genetically determined reactions to specific drugs, which can result in unexpected and adverse effects. Option A, Addiction , is not a genetically determined adverse drug reaction but rather a behavioral response to a substance. Option B, Teratogenicity , refers to drugs or agents that can cause harm to a developing fetus and is not directly related to genetic factors. Option C, Carcinogenicity , is the ability of a substance to cause cancer, and while genetics can play a role in cancer susceptibility, it is not a genetically determined adverse drug reaction in the same sense as idiosyncracy. Therefore, the correct answer to this question is Option D: Idiosyncracy , as it directly relates to genetically determined adverse drug reactions.
63:
A
64:
A
65:
D
66:
C
67:
C
68:
D
69:
C
70:
B
71:
C
72:
C
73:
A
74:
B
75:
D
76:
C
77:
B
78:
C
79:
C
80:
B
81:
D
82:
D
83:
B
84:
A
85:
B
86:
B
87:
A
88:
D
89:
D
90:
D
91:
A
92:
B
93:
B
94:
D
95:
C
96:
B
97:
A
98:
D
99:
A
100:
A