Question 1:
The title of AAS2 issued by Council of ICAI is:
A.
Objective and Scope of the Financial Statements
B.
Objective and Scope of the Audit of Financial Statements
C.
Objective and Scope of Business of an Entity
D.
Objective and Scope of Financial Statements Audit
Answer: _________
Question 2:
Internal audit is undertaken
A.
By independent auditor
B.
Statutorily appointed auditor
C.
By a person appointed by the management
D.
By a government auditor
Answer: _________
Question 3:
An audit program is a program designed to
A.
for the arrival and departure of the auditor
B.
for routine check up
C.
to inspect the branches of the company
D.
for phased work of audit
Answer: _________
Question 4:
An auditor should study and evaluate internal controls to
A.
Determine whether assets are safeguarded
B.
Suggest improvements in internal control
C.
Plan audit procedures
D.
Express and opinion
Answer: _________
Question 5:
Standard Auditing Practice-1 (SAP-1) is related with
A.
Objective and scope of audit of financial statement
B.
Basic principles governing an audit
C.
Documentation
D.
Detection of frauds and errors
Answer: _________
Question 6:
In a company, Internal Auditor is appointed by:
A.
Board of Directors
B.
Shareholders
C.
Government
D.
Creditors
Answer: _________
Question 7:
After completion of the audit of a company the auditor should submit its report to the
A.
Government
B.
Court
C.
Public
D.
Shareholders
Answer: _________
Question 8:
A company auditor has to report
A.
Board of directors
B.
Managing Director
C.
Institutional investors
D.
To the shareholders in the annual general meeting
Answer: _________
Question 9:
Auditor is a watch dog and not a blood hound statement is given by:
A.
Lord Justice lindley
B.
Lord Justice lopes
C.
Luca Pacialo
D.
Spicer and Pegler
Answer: _________
Question 10:
Which of the following expenses should not be treated as capital expenditure?
A.
Expenses paid on installation of a plant
B.
Cost of dismantling a building in case a new building is to be constructed on the land
C.
Legal expenses incurred to defend a suit related to title of patent. The suit has been lost
D.
The fees paid to engineer who constructed the plant
Answer: _________
Question 11:
Government may order for special audit under:
A.
Section 227
B.
Section 233-A
C.
Section 233-B
D.
Section 224
Answer: _________
Question 12:
A company cannot appoint a person or a firm to be its auditor who undertakes the audit of the companies
A.
12
B.
20
C.
25
D.
28
Answer: _________
Question 13:
An internal auditor discovered that fictitious purchases have been recorded by the purchase clerk. This indicates absence of which control?
A.
Purchase invoices are independently matched with purchase orders and goods received notes
B.
Goods received notes requires the signature of individual who authorized the purchase
C.
Routine checks are performed by internal auditor fortnightly
D.
Purchase function and production function are clubbed in one department
Answer: _________
Question 14:
Internal check is carried on by:
A.
Staff specially appointed for the purpose
B.
Internal auditor
C.
Supervisor of the staff
D.
Members of the staff
Answer: _________
Question 15:
As per the requirements of section 141(3) a person is disqualified from being appointed as a statutory auditor if he holds:
A.
Equity shares or debentures of the company
B.
Equity shares carrying voting of the company
C.
Shares carrying voting rights of the company
D.
Security of the company
Answer: _________
Question 16:
Internal check is meant for . . . . . . . .
A.
prevention of frauds
B.
detection of frauds
C.
helping audit is depth
D.
detection of errors
Answer: _________
Question 17:
Which of the following is NOT a part of Basic Audit Assumption?
A.
True and fair view
B.
Inter-dependency of the auditor
C.
Materiality
D.
Ethical conduct
Answer: _________
Question 18:
An auditor is verifying valuation of building which has been self-constructed by the client. Which of the following documents is least relevant to the auditor for verification purposes?
A.
Bills of contractor
B.
Minutes of meeting of board of directors
C.
Certificates of engineer and architect
D.
Loan agreement
Answer: _________
Question 19:
The overall attitude and awareness of an entity's board of directors concerning the importance of internal control is reflected in
A.
Accounting controls
B.
Control environment
C.
Control procedures
D.
Supervision
Answer: _________
Question 20:
An auditor assesses control risk because it:
A.
Affects the audit risk
B.
Affects the level of detection risk that auditor may accept
C.
Helps him to fix materiality level for each financial assertion
D.
Is directly related to inherent risk
Answer: _________
Question 21:
To be an auditor, a person must be an
A.
Employee
B.
Employer
C.
Accountant
D.
Independent person
Answer: _________
Question 22:
The report through which an auditor expresses his opinion on the financial statement is known as
A.
Cost report
B.
Audit report
C.
Statutory report
D.
Management report
Answer: _________
Question 23:
Choose the correct statement in reference to accounting standards., choose the correct statement:
A.
Accounting standards codify the generally accepted accounting principles
B.
Accounting standards lay down the norms of accounting policies and practices by way of codes or guidelines
C.
The main purpose of accounting standards is to provide information to the user on the basis of which the accounts have been prepared
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 24:
The auditor does not have to check the following while auditing salaries/wages
A.
Calculation of the salary
B.
Whether the calculation was verified by department heads
C.
Whether dues like PF, PT, TDS have been deducted and deposited
D.
Payment has been made to all the employees on first of the month
Answer: _________
Question 25:
The step(s) involved in conducting system audit is/are
A.
Audit evidence
B.
Conduct audit tests
C.
Concluding the audit
D.
All of these
Answer: _________
Question 26:
The auditor, in general, is an
A.
Employee of the company
B.
Agent of the company
C.
Agent of the shareholders
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 27:
The term of the auditorship of first auditor would be from the date of appointment till:
A.
The conclusion of statutory meeting
B.
The conclusion of first annual general meeting
C.
The conclusion of next annual general meeting
D.
The date of removal
Answer: _________
Question 28:
In which audit, the examination of the effects of air emission, water and soil pollution, landscape etc is done?
A.
Management audit
B.
Energy audit
C.
Environmental audit
D.
Safety audit
Answer: _________
Question 29:
The Accounting Standard Board was set up by
A.
Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
B.
Institute of Cost and Works Accountants of India
C.
Institute of Company Secretaries of India
D.
Government of India
Answer: _________
Question 30:
The primary objective of an audit is to
A.
Verify and value assets as per the Companies Act
B.
Verify liabilities and report to the registrar of companies
C.
Verify and report on the state of affairs of the business
D.
Appoint auditors
Answer: _________
Question 31:
Routine checks means
A.
Daily checking of daily copy transactions
B.
Internal inspection system
C.
Provisional check of accounts
D.
Checking routine items
Answer: _________
Question 32:
Which of the following statement best describes the understanding with respect to ownership and custody of working papers prepared by an auditor?
A.
The working papers may be obtained by third parties when they appear to be relevant to issues raised in litigation
B.
The safe custody of working papers is the responsibility of client, if kept at his premises
C.
The working papers must be retained by an audit firm for a period of 10 years
D.
Successor auditors may have access to working papers of the predecessor auditors. The approval of client is not require
Answer: _________
Question 33:
A systematic examination of books and record of a business is called
A.
Auditing
B.
Vouching
C.
Verification
D.
Checking
Answer: _________
Question 34:
"An auditor is not an insurer and all that he is required to do to exercise with reasonable care and skill." This decision was given in the case of
A.
Kingston Cotton Mills Co. Ltd.
B.
Allen Craig and Co.
C.
London and General Bank
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 35:
Treating revenue expenditure as capital expenditure is a case of . . . . . . . .
A.
fraud
B.
misappropriation of cash
C.
misappropriation of goods
D.
manipulation of accounts
Answer: _________
Question 36:
Which of the following documents is not relevant for vouching cash sales?
A.
Daily cash sales summary
B.
Monthly statements sent to customers
C.
Statement given by salesmen
D.
Bank statement
Answer: _________
Question 37:
An independent and critical enquiry of management process is known as:
A.
Operational Audit
B.
Financial Audit
C.
Management Audit
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 38:
The Words teaming and lading are used
A.
for embezzlement of cash
B.
for manipulating accounts
C.
for fraudulent purchases
D.
none of the above
Answer: _________
Question 39:
Receipts from sale of investments should be vouched with the help of:
A.
Broker's bought notes
B.
Broker's sold notes
C.
Minutes book
D.
Inventory of investment
Answer: _________
Question 40:
The section related to removal of auditor is
A.
Section 224(8)
B.
Section 224(7)
C.
Section 223(5)
D.
Section 223(2)
Answer: _________
Question 41:
The existence of a good system of internal check reduces to a great extent
A.
the work of the auditor
B.
the liability of the auditor
C.
neither the work nor the liability of the auditor
D.
both the work and the liability of the auditor
Answer: _________
Question 42:
The first Auditor of a company is appointed by the
A.
Board of Directors
B.
Shareholders
C.
Central Government
D.
Promoters Company
Answer: _________
Question 43:
Which of the following will not lead to creation of secret reserve?
A.
Undervaluation of closing stock
B.
Charging capital expenditure to revenue
C.
Goods sent on consignment being shown as actual sales
D.
Charging higher rates of depreciation on fixed assets than actually required
Answer: _________
Question 44:
Which of the following statement is not true regard to auditor's attendance at stock taking?
A.
Auditor should attend physical stock taking only if inventory is material
B.
Auditor may not attend physical verification of stock by management, if he does not find it appropriate to rely on it
C.
If inventory is material, even when the auditor is not placing reliance on the physical verification by the management, he should attend it
D.
The primary objective of an auditor's observation of an entity's observation of an entity's stock take is to obtain direct knowledge that the stock and has been property counted
Answer: _________
Question 45:
The scope of the audit including reference to the pronouncements of the ICAI, which the auditor adheres to, generally is communicated to the client in the . . . . . . . . (i) auditor's report (ii) engagement letter (iii) representation letter
A.
(i) only
B.
Both (i) and (ii)
C.
Both (i) and (iii)
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 46:
Special audit is necessary for . . . . . . . .
A.
inefficient concern
B.
processing concern
C.
trading concern
D.
manufacturing concern
Answer: _________
Question 47:
Knowledge of the entity's business does not help the auditor to:
A.
Reduce inherent risk
B.
Identify problem areas
C.
Evaluate reasonableness of estimates
D.
Evaluate appropriates of GAAP
Answer: _________
Question 48:
Under the Companies Act, the Statutory Cost Audit is conducted as per the provisions of
A.
Section 209 (d)
B.
Section 233 (13)
C.
Section 233 (B)
D.
Section 224
Answer: _________
Question 49:
While vouching wages, auditor should examine whether there is proper segregation of duties. Which of the following activities should not be done by same department?
A.
Maintaining personnel records and approving changing in wages rates
B.
Proposing pay roll summary and disbursement of wages
C.
Making salary statements and filing tax returns
D.
Comparing time clock records with time reports prepared by supervisors and preparing list of workers employed along with the units of production for each one of them
Answer: _________
Question 50:
Which statement is not true about Management Audit?
A.
It appraises managerial performance
B.
It is a statutory obligation
C.
It ascertains whether the controls are adequate and effective
D.
It evaluates plans to meet the objectives
Answer: _________
Question 51:
"In continuous audit the auditors staff is busy in checking the accounts throughout the year." This definition is given by
A.
R. G. William
B.
Spicer and Pegler
C.
Carter
D.
J. R. Bottleboy
Answer: _________
Question 52:
Payment for building purchased should be vouched with the help of:
A.
Title Deed
B.
Correspondence with the brokers
C.
Building Account
D.
Cash book
Answer: _________
Question 53:
Vouching implies:
A.
Inspection of receipts
B.
Examination of vouchers to check authenticity of records
C.
Surprise checking of accounting records
D.
Examining the various assets
Answer: _________
Question 54:
The objectives of auditing are:
A.
detection of frauds
B.
detection of clerical errors
C.
detection of errors of principle
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 55:
When the audit is conducted regularly or irregularly throughout the year, it is called as
A.
continuous audit
B.
statutory audit
C.
internal audit
D.
interim audit
Answer: _________
Question 56:
Who is responsible for the appointment of statutory auditor of a limited company?
A.
Directors of the company
B.
Members of the company
C.
The Central Government
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 57:
In an audit of financial statements, substantive tests are audit procedures that:
A.
may be eliminated for an account balance under certain conditions
B.
are designed to discover significant subsequent events
C.
will increase proportionately when the auditor decreases the assessed level of control risk
D.
may be test of transactions, test of balance and analytical procedures
Answer: _________
Question 58:
A statutory auditor has a right of access at all times to:
A.
Books and accounts of a company
B.
Books, accounts and documents of the company
C.
Books, accounts and vouchers of the company
D.
Notices and documents of the company
Answer: _________
Question 59:
Name the audit, that is generally conducted between two annual audit.
A.
External auditing
B.
Standard auditing
C.
Interim auditing
D.
Final auditing
Answer: _________
Question 60:
The duties of an auditor of a partnership firm are governed by:
A.
The Indian Partnership Act, 1932
B.
The Chartered Accountants Act, 1949
C.
The Indian Income Tax Act, 1961
D.
The contract between the auditor and the firm
Answer: _________
Question 61:
For vouching of which item, the auditor is most likely to examine cost records?
A.
Commission earned
B.
Bad debts recorded
C.
Credit sales
D.
Sale of scrap
Answer: _________
Question 62:
An Auditor is a:
A.
Watch-dog
B.
Blood-hound
C.
Street dog
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 63:
The internal auditor is appointed by
A.
By the shareholder of the company
B.
By the scientific auditor
C.
By the Indian institute of internal auditors
D.
By the board of directors of the company
Answer: _________
Question 64:
Who out of the following cannot be appointed as a statutory auditor of the company?
A.
Erstwhile director
B.
Internal auditor
C.
Relative of a director
D.
Only B and C
Answer: _________
Question 65:
The auditor while verifying prepaid insurance has concluded that there is inadequate insurance of building, He should:
A.
Modify his audit report
B.
Insist it should be disclosed in the notes to financial statements
C.
Write it in letter of weakness
D.
Both B and C
Answer: _________
Question 66:
. . . . . . . . means "proving the truth or confirmation".
A.
Vouching
B.
Verification
C.
Inspection
D.
Auditing
Answer: _________
Question 67:
Public company is audited
A.
Optional
B.
Mandatory
C.
Complete
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 68:
Concealment of shortage by delaying the recording of cash receipts is known as:
A.
Embezzlement
B.
Misappropriation
C.
Lapping
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 69:
Which of the following does not call for physical verification:
A.
Stock
B.
Plant
C.
Loose tools
D.
Goodwill
Answer: _________
Question 70:
Closing stock is recorded in the books of accounts through:
A.
an adjustment entry
B.
a closing entry
C.
a closing entry or by adjusting pruchases through an adjustment entry
D.
a opening entry
Answer: _________
Question 71:
Which of the following statements with regard to rules regarding exemption from branch audit is not true?
A.
A branch office of a company can be granted exemption on the basis of quantum of activity criterion
B.
If a satisfactory arrangement of scrutiny check of the books of account of a branch office of a manufacturing company has been made, it can be exempted from branch audit
C.
Cost consideration should be considered as an important factor/ground for exemption from branch audit
D.
The auditor should state in his audit report that branch office is exempted by virtue of quantum of activity or any other basis
Answer: _________
Question 72:
What are the qualification required to be an auditor of a company?
A.
An auditor must have passed M.Com
B.
An auditor must have passed the exam of India audit and accounts service
C.
An auditor must be Chartered Accountant under the Chartered Accountant Act, 1949
D.
An auditor must be an employee of the company
Answer: _________
Question 73:
'XYZ' is a firm of Chartered Accountants having three partners, all of whom are in full time practice. What is the total number of companies for which the firm can act as auditor at a given point of time:
A.
40
B.
30
C.
60
D.
15
Answer: _________
Question 74:
Statutory audit is compulsory for:
A.
All public limited companies
B.
All private limited companies
C.
Both public and private limited companies
D.
All business enterprises
Answer: _________
Question 75:
The board of directors shall appoint first auditor of a company:
A.
Within one month of completion of capital subscription state of the company
B.
Within one month of the promotion of the company
C.
Within one month of the commencement of the business of the company
D.
Within one month of incorporation of the company
Answer: _________
Question 76:
Internal control covers the following:
A.
Statutory audit, internal audit and internal check
B.
Internal check and internal audit only
C.
Internal check, internal audit, statutory audit and physical control of assets
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 77:
As per AAS4, if auditor detects an error then:
A.
He should inform the management
B.
He should communicate it to the management if it is material
C.
The auditor should ensure financial statements are adjusted for detected errors
D.
Both B and C
Answer: _________
Question 78:
Process of verifying the documentary evidences of transactions are known as:
A.
Auditing
B.
Testing
C.
Vouching
D.
Verification
Answer: _________
Question 79:
Internal auditor is:
A.
a representative of shareholders
B.
a representative of government
C.
an employee of the company
D.
an independent professional
Answer: _________
Question 80:
The term 'Audit' is derived from a Latin word "audire" which means:
A.
To inspect
B.
To examine
C.
To hear
D.
To investigate
Answer: _________
Question 81:
Which of the following affects audit effectiveness?
A.
Risk of over reliance
B.
Risk of incorrect rejection
C.
Risk of incorrect acceptance
D.
Both A and C
Answer: _________
Question 82:
The first annual general meeting of the company must be held
A.
within 3 months from the date of closing of first financial year of the company
B.
within 6 months from the date of closing of first financial year of the company
C.
within 9 months from the date of closing of first financial year of the company
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 83:
According to Section 226(3) of the Companies Act, 1956, the following persons are disqualified for appointment as an auditor of a company:
A.
A debtor of a company
B.
An officer of a company
C.
An insolvent
D.
All the above
Answer: _________
Question 84:
Which of the following Auditing Assurance Standard deals with Audit Planning?
A.
AAS7
B.
AAS8
C.
AAS9
D.
AAS3
Answer: _________
Question 85:
Identify the odd one from the following
A.
Routine clerk
B.
Instruction card clerk
C.
Disciplinary officer
D.
Inspector
Answer: _________
Question 86:
When a transaction has not been recorded in the books of account either wholly or partially such errors are called . . . . . . . .
A.
errors of commission
B.
errors of omission
C.
compensating error
D.
error of principle
Answer: _________
Question 87:
Testing the truthness of the items appearing in the books of original entries is called vouching. This definition is given by
A.
D. Paula
B.
Joseph Lancaster
C.
Batliboi
D.
Marshall
Answer: _________
Question 88:
Assertion (A): Internal audit is required to be conducted by a qualified chartered accountant. Reason (R): It is a tool of management. Give the correct answer using the given option
A.
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
B.
Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
C.
A is correct but R is wrong
D.
A is wrong but R is correct
Answer: _________
Question 89:
Which of the following would give the assurance that debtors mentioned on the date of balance sheet actually exist?
A.
Sending debtor's confirmation letters
B.
Reviewing subsequent collection
C.
Verify debtors against sales document
D.
Both A and B
Answer: _________
Question 90:
Which of the following statement is not true regarding appointment of auditor by the Central Government?
A.
Such powers have been conferred upon it by section 139(7)
B.
If a company fails to appoint an auditor at a general meeting
C.
If an auditor refuses to accept appointment, the powers of the Central Government can be exercised
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 91:
Which of the following are the rights of a Statutory Auditor? 1. To receive remuneration 2. To attend Board of Directors' Meeting 3. To attend the General Meeting 4. To visit the branch office Choose the correct answer from the following:
A.
1 and 2
B.
1, 2 and 4
C.
1, 3 and 4
D.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: _________
Question 92:
The technique(s) of management audit is/are 1. Co-relation of information 2. Observation 3. Ratio analysis 4. Financial data analysis
A.
Only 2
B.
Both 2 and 3
C.
Both 1 and 4
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 93:
The value at which the assets are shown in the books of account is known as
A.
Book value
B.
Market value
C.
Cost value
D.
Replacement value
Answer: _________
Question 94:
Auditing is luxury for:
A.
Joint stock company
B.
Partnership firm
C.
Small shop-keeper
D.
Government company
Answer: _________
Question 95:
What is the maximum time limit for submitting management audit report?
A.
15 days
B.
20 days
C.
30 days
D.
No time limit
Answer: _________
Question 96:
The remuneration of an auditor of a partnership firm is fixed by
A.
The Partnership Act
B.
The Companies Act
C.
Government
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 97:
The beneficiaries of auditing include(s)
A.
Company
B.
Bankers
C.
Sole proprietorship
D.
All of these
Answer: _________
Question 98:
A company auditor can be removed before the expiry of his term by
A.
Shareholders
B.
Board of directors
C.
Central government
D.
State government
Answer: _________
Question 99:
In order to vouch, which of the expenses the auditor will examine in bill of entry?
A.
Customs
B.
Income tax
C.
GST
D.
VAT
Answer: _________
Question 100:
Safety audit is mandatory for
A.
Manufacturing industries
B.
Hazardous industries
C.
Textile industries
D.
Mining industries
Answer: _________
Question 101:
Normally a company auditor is appointed by:
A.
Central government
B.
Shareholders
C.
Board of directors
D.
Company law board
Answer: _________
Question 102:
Which of the following is the function of an auditor?
A.
To check the mathematical correctness of the account
B.
Finding and preventing errors
C.
Finding and preventing deficiencies
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 103:
Test checking reduces-
A.
Responsibility of an auditor
B.
Rights of an auditor
C.
Expenses of an auditor
D.
Work of an auditor
Answer: _________
Question 104:
Verification of the value of assets, liabilities, the balance of reserves, provision and the amount of profit earned or loss suffered a firm is called . . . . . . . .
A.
continuous audit
B.
balance sheet audit
C.
interim audit
D.
partial audit
Answer: _________
Question 105:
Which of the following controls would ensure that securities are not lost, stolen or diverted?
A.
Establish physical barriers over investment securities
B.
Maintain files of authorized signatures
C.
Segregate investment approval from accounting and from custody of securities
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 106:
Voucher relates to . . . . . . . .
A.
Cash receipt & payments, credit transactions
B.
Cash payment only
C.
Credit transactions only
D.
Cash receipt only
Answer: _________
Question 107:
Control risk is assessed at:
A.
Overall financial statements level
B.
Fraud risk factor level
C.
Financial statement assertion level
D.
Control environment level
Answer: _________
Question 108:
For what minimum period should audit working papers be retained by audit firm?
A.
For the time period the entity remains a client of the audit firm
B.
For a period of ten years
C.
For a period auditor opines them to be useful in servicing the client
D.
For the period the audit firm is in existence
Answer: _________
Question 109:
Company auditing was first made compulsory in India, in
A.
1894
B.
1913
C.
1949
D.
1956
Answer: _________
Question 110:
The auditor's report alongwith the annual accounts is given
A.
Statutory auditor
B.
Internal auditor
C.
Government auditor
D.
Secreterial auditor
Answer: _________
Question 111:
Limitation of auditing is-
A.
that it does not reveal complete picture of business
B.
that it does not guarantee accuracy of accounts
C.
that auditor may by biased
D.
all the above
Answer: _________
Question 112:
Audit of banks is an example of:
A.
Statutory audit
B.
Balance sheet audit
C.
Concurrent audit
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 113:
The auditor should examine subsequent realization of revenue such as dividends, interest, commission, etc. to:
A.
Identify cases of unrecorded revenue
B.
Ensure proper disclosure in the balance sheet
C.
Recomputed accrued income on the data of balance sheet
D.
Any of these
Answer: _________
Question 114:
Latin word "audire" means
A.
To adjust
B.
To dare
C.
To hear
D.
To here
Answer: _________
Question 115:
Which of the following is related to internal checking?
A.
The accounting records are checked by internal people
B.
Assets verification is done internally
C.
The work of one person is automatically checked by other person
D.
The work of each person is checked internally
Answer: _________
Question 116:
Audit working papers is an assets of:
A.
A client
B.
Auditor
C.
Both A and B
D.
Company Law Board
Answer: _________
Question 117:
Management audit otherwise called as . . . . . . . .
A.
Final Audit
B.
Efficiency Audit
C.
Cost Audit
D.
Cash Audit
Answer: _________
Question 118:
Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the duties of an auditor?
A.
Physical verification of fixed assets is primarily the responsibility of the auditor
B.
Ownership of fixed assets should be verified by examining the title deed by the auditor
C.
Auditor should ascertain that the assets are in the possession of the client
D.
The auditor should satisfy himself that the assets have been valued in the financial statements according to the accounting principles
Answer: _________
Question 119:
Internal check is done for
A.
Helping audit in depth
B.
Prevention of frauds
C.
Detection of frauds
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 120:
Proper segregation of duties reduces the opportunities in which a person would both:
A.
Establish controls and executes them
B.
Records cash receipts and cash payments
C.
Perpetuate errors and frauds and conceals them
D.
Record the transaction in journal and ledger
Answer: _________
Question 121:
An internal audit is watchdog of?
A.
Management
B.
Shareholders
C.
Government
D.
Outsiders
Answer: _________
Question 122:
Which of the following statement is not true?
A.
A partnership firm can be appointed as a statutory auditor of limited company
B.
Appointment can be made in the name of the firm
C.
Majority of the partners should be practicing in India
D.
All partners should be chartered accountants
Answer: _________
Question 123:
The branch auditor is appointed by:
A.
Shareholders in an annual general meeting
B.
Shareholders in general meeting
C.
Board of directors in board meeting
D.
Any of the above
Answer: _________
Question 124:
Which one of the following statement is not true?
A.
An auditor is not a servant of the appointing company
B.
The auditor is an agent of shareholders, but they are not bound by all types of notices given to the auditor by the company
C.
In case a person other than a retiring auditor is to be appointed as an auditor a notice of this intention must be given to the shareholders of the company as least 10 days before the date of the General Meeting of the company
D.
A debtor of the company for more than Rs. 1,000 cannot be appointed auditor of the company
Answer: _________
Question 125:
Audit done by the employees of the business undertaking is called . . . . . . . .
A.
Final Audit
B.
Management Audit
C.
Government Audit
D.
Internal Audit
Answer: _________
Question 126:
A company has earned profit on sale of its machine and wants to pay dividend out of it. An auditor should:
A.
accept it
B.
not accept it
C.
accept under certain conditions
D.
none of the above
Answer: _________
Question 127:
The scope of work of an internal auditor is determined by
A.
Shareholders
B.
Management
C.
Government
D.
Law
Answer: _________
Question 128:
An auditor is held criminally liable for:
A.
loss to his client
B.
Neglect of his duty
C.
Offences against statutory provisions
D.
Frauds
Answer: _________
Question 129:
Which of the following is not a limitation of audit as per AAS4?
A.
Objectivity of auditor's judgment
B.
Selective testing
C.
Persuasiveness of evidence
D.
Limitations of internal control system
Answer: _________
Question 130:
Auditing, which is taken up when final accounts are ready, is called:
A.
Periodical audit
B.
Continuous audit
C.
Interim audit
D.
Irregular audit
Answer: _________
Question 131:
Cost audit report is to be furnished to:
A.
The company
B.
The central government with a copy to company
C.
The central government
D.
The company secretary
Answer: _________
Question 132:
In case of unclaimed wages, the auditor should examine whether:
A.
The amount has been deposited in a separate bank account
B.
Deposited with the cashier
C.
Held in a safe deposit box
D.
All of these
Answer: _________
Question 133:
Which of the following Schedule of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with depreciations?
A.
Schedule II
B.
Schedule V
C.
Schedule XIII
D.
Schedule X
Answer: _________
Question 134:
The authority to remove the first auditor before the expiry of term is with:
A.
The shareholders in a general meeting
B.
The shareholders in the first annual general meeting
C.
The board of directors
D.
The Central Government
Answer: _________
Question 135:
While verifying intangible assets, an auditor would recomputed amortization charges and determines whether amortization period is reasonable. The auditor tries to establish . . . . . . . . by doing it
A.
Valuation
B.
Existence
C.
Disclosure
D.
Possession
Answer: _________
Question 136:
Internal control includes
A.
Economic control
B.
Economic and non-economic control
C.
Economic, non-economic control and administrative control
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 137:
Window dressing implies:
A.
Curtailment of expenses
B.
Checking of wastages
C.
Under valuation of assets
D.
Over valuation of assets
Answer: _________
Question 138:
Internal check is a part of:
A.
Internal audit
B.
Internal control
C.
Annual audit
D.
Standard audit
Answer: _________
Question 139:
Management Audit includes
A.
Efficiency and performance audit
B.
Propriety audit
C.
Both A and B
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 140:
Institute of Chartered Accountants of India was established:
A.
1956
B.
1949
C.
1958
D.
1948
Answer: _________
Question 141:
While observing a client's annual physical inventory, an auditor conducted test counts for certain test counts were higher than the recorded quantities in the client's perpetual records. This situation could be the result of the client's failure to record:
A.
Purchase returns
B.
Sales returns
C.
Goods with consignor
D.
Purchase discounts
Answer: _________
Question 142:
If in a company, the work of one person is complementary to the work of another, then it is related to
A.
Internal control
B.
Internal audit
C.
Internal check
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 143:
Which of the following is NOT a reason for fraud?
A.
Absence or laxness in internal control
B.
Overstatement of stock
C.
Understatement of purchases
D.
Keeping voucher for monetary transactions
Answer: _________
Question 144:
Test checking should not be applied to-
A.
Sales Book
B.
Purchase Book
C.
Bills Book
D.
Cash Book
Answer: _________
Question 145:
Which of the following is a primary voucher:
A.
Invoice
B.
Carbon copy of receipts
C.
Counterfoil
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 146:
Which of the following audits is exclusively done by Company Secretary?
A.
Statutory Audit
B.
Cost Audit
C.
Financial Audit
D.
Secretarial audit
Answer: _________
Question 147:
Auditor has to submit the audit report to:
A.
Directors
B.
Creditors
C.
Shareholders
D.
Government
Answer: _________
Question 148:
A company has bought patents. Which of the following methods is most suitable for providing depreciation on them?
A.
SLM
B.
WDV
C.
Sum of year digits
D.
Any of the above
Answer: _________
Question 149:
Cost audit of a company under Section 233 B can presently be conducted by
A.
company's auditor appointed under section 224
B.
only a Chartered Accountant in practice
C.
only a Cost Accountant in practice
D.
any Accountant
Answer: _________
Question 150:
If a company auditor does something inappropriate in his performance of duty which causes the financial loss to the company, he shall be held guilty
A.
Civil negligence
B.
Breach of duty
C.
Criminal negligence
D.
Financial irregularities
Answer: _________
Question 151:
Verification refers to
A.
Examination of journal and ledger
B.
Examination of voucher relating to assets
C.
Examination of physical existence and valuation of assets
D.
Calculation of the value of assets
Answer: _________
Question 152:
. . . . . . . . is a systematic examination of the books and records or a business.
A.
Auditing
B.
Vouching
C.
Verification
D.
Checking
Answer: _________
Question 153:
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Test Checking ⇔ Random checking 2. Internal Check ⇔ A system of automatic checking 3. Internal Control ⇔ Includes internal check and internal audit 4. Investigation ⇔ General examination of all accounting records Select the correct answer:
A.
2, 3 and 4
B.
1, 2 and 4
C.
1 and 2
D.
1, 2 and 3
Answer: _________
Question 154:
An auditor conducts a surprise check on the pay day (i.e.) the day wages and salaries are paid. The primary purpose of this audit procedure is:
A.
To ensure that there are no ghost workers
B.
To ensure the casual workers employed are authorized by the supervisor
C.
To test procedures for distributing pay cheques
D.
To obtain understanding of internal control system
Answer: _________
Question 155:
Management audit is ordered by the
A.
Workers of a company
B.
Government
C.
Board of directors
D.
Securities Exchange Board of India
Answer: _________
Question 156:
In case of sales return, the auditor should examine which documents?
A.
Credit notes, advice notes and inward return notes
B.
Debit notes, advice notes and inward return notes
C.
Purchase invoices, advice notes and inward return notes
D.
Credit notes, inspection report and inward return notes
Answer: _________
Question 157:
Which of the following is/are the object(s) of cost audit for organisations?
A.
Examination of new plans
B.
Increase in work efficiency
C.
Determination of policies
D.
All of these
Answer: _________
Question 158:
A sale of Rs. 30,000 to A was entered as a sale to B. This is an example of
A.
Error of omission
B.
Error of commission
C.
Compensating error
D.
Error of principle
Answer: _________
Question 159:
The verification of the value of assets, liabilities, balance of reserves, provision and the amount of profits earned or loss suffered is called . . . . . . . .
A.
Balance sheet audit
B.
Continuous audit
C.
Interim audit
D.
Partial audit
Answer: _________
Question 160:
Match the following in the term of Assertions and Explanation : List I (Assertions) List II (Explanations) a. Cut-off 1. Assets and liabilities exist b. Classification 2. Transactions and events have been recorded in proper accounts c. Occurrence 3. Transactions and events have been recorded in the correct accounting period d. Existence 4. Transactions and events that have been recorded, have occurred and pertain to the entity
A.
a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
B.
a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
C.
a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
D.
a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
Answer: _________
Question 161:
Lapping is also known as:
A.
Teeming and lading
B.
Embezzlement
C.
Looping
D.
Hacking
Answer: _________
Question 162:
Which of the following are included in test of control?
A.
Reperformance and observation
B.
Inquiry and analytical procedures
C.
Comparison and conformation
D.
Inspection and verification
Answer: _________
Question 163:
Cost audit is not necessary for units engaged in:
A.
manufacturing
B.
mining
C.
processing
D.
contracting
Answer: _________
Question 164:
Internal auditor can be removed
A.
By management
B.
By shareholders
C.
By statutory auditor
D.
By Government
Answer: _________
Question 165:
Which of the following statements is most closely associated with analytical procedure applied at substantive stage?
A.
It helps to study relationship among balance sheet accounts
B.
It helps to discover material misstatements in the financial statements
C.
It helps to identify possible oversights
D.
It helps to accumulate evidence supporting the validity of a specific account balance
Answer: _________
Question 166:
The report of the internal audit is presented to
A.
Government
B.
Shareholders
C.
Creditors
D.
Board of directors
Answer: _________
Question 167:
In case of vouching, the auditor is least likely to examine authorization by appropriate authority in case of
A.
Bad debts written off
B.
Sales return
C.
Purchase return
D.
Discount allowed to customers as per organizational policy
Answer: _________
Question 168:
Who among the following is eligible to be appointed as an auditor? 1. A person having qualified and recognized by ICAI as practicing CA 2. A body corporate 3. A person holding shares of the company having voting rights
A.
Only 1
B.
Only 1 and 2
C.
1, 2 and 3
D.
Only 2
Answer: _________
Question 169:
Which of the following report not result in qualification of the auditor's opinion due to a scope limitation?
A.
Restrictions the client imposed
B.
Reliance on the report of other auditor
C.
Inability to obtain sufficient appropriate evidential matter
D.
Inadequacy of accounting records
Answer: _________
Question 170:
Auditor gives report on:
A.
Truthfulness of accounts
B.
Fairness of accounts
C.
Validity of accounts
D.
All of these
Answer: _________
Question 171:
The auditor is most likely to examine related party transactions very carefully while vouching:
A.
Credit sales
B.
Sales returns
C.
Credit purchases
D.
Cash purchases
Answer: _________
Question 172:
Investigation is conducted:
A.
As a good inquiry
B.
To establish the correctness of the accounting records
C.
For some specific purpose
D.
As a constitutional requirement
Answer: _________
Question 173:
The reason(s) of qualified report is/are
A.
Violation of generally accepted principles of auditing
B.
Violation of accounting principles
C.
Lack of adequate information and explanations
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 174:
Checking the date of voucher on the voucher during vouching, mainly helps the auditor to obtain evidence that
A.
The transaction relates to current year
B.
The transaction has taken place
C.
The transaction is genuine
D.
The transaction is legal
Answer: _________
Question 175:
Interim audit refers to
A.
Continuous examination of accounts
B.
Intermittent examination of accounts
C.
Audit work to find and check the interim profits of a company
D.
Carrying on audit for bonus purpose at the end of the year
Answer: _________
Question 176:
The main objective of verification of assets is
A.
Physical verification of assets
B.
Checking the values of assets
C.
Examining the authority of their acquisition
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 177:
Acontinuous audit is especially needed for
A.
Any trading organization
B.
Smaller concern
C.
Banking business
D.
Manufacturing companies
Answer: _________
Question 178:
In which type of energy audit readily available data is used to analyse the performance?
A.
General audit
B.
Preliminary audit
C.
Safety audit
D.
System audit
Answer: _________
Question 179:
Statement I: Management audit is a part of financial audit. Statement II: Management audit is not compulsory under any law.
A.
Only statement I is true
B.
Only statement II is true
C.
Both statements are true
D.
Both statements are false
Answer: _________
Question 180:
Which of the following is not an advantage of the preparation of working paper?
A.
To provide a basis for review of audit work
B.
To provide a basis for subsequent audits
C.
To ensure audit work is being carried out as per programme
D.
To provide a guide for advising another client on similar issues
Answer: _________
Question 181:
Vendors should be approved by Management before purchase department executes an order. If this is not done, then which of the following situations may arise?
A.
Purchases could be made from vendors whose product quality may not be good
B.
Purchases may be made from related parties without management's knowledge
C.
Purchases could be made from vendors who may have offered price to manager purchases
D.
Any of these
Answer: _________
Question 182:
A company auditor should inform the Registrar of Companies, in writing, about the acceptance of his appointment within:
A.
7 days
B.
10 days
C.
26 days
D.
30 days
Answer: _________
Question 183:
During a company audit, the management argues with the auditor that machine has been well maintained hence there is no need for charging depreciation on it. Whether the auditor should:
A.
Accept it
B.
Ignore it
C.
Reject it
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 184:
The objective of vouching is:
A.
Getting knowledge of business transactions
B.
Getting knowledge of non-business transactions
C.
A and B both
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 185:
Purchase returns should be vouched with the help of:
A.
Bought notes
B.
Credit notes
C.
Goods inward book
D.
Cash book
Answer: _________
Question 186:
For which of the following types of enterprises an independent financial audit is required statutorily.
A.
Companies
B.
Partnership firms
C.
Hindu undivided families
D.
Registered firms
Answer: _________
Question 187:
The primary purpose of performing tests of control is to provide reasonable assurance that:
A.
There are no material misstatements due to fraud or error in financial statement
B.
Accounting system is well documented
C.
Written evidence is there to support transactions
D.
If internal control is effective
Answer: _________
Question 188:
Which of the following is most crucial to a purchase department?
A.
Reducing the cost of acquisition
B.
Selecting supplies
C.
Authorizing the acquisition of goods
D.
Assuring the quality of goods
Answer: _________
Question 189:
Which of the following statements is not true about continuous audit?
A.
It is conducted at regular interval
B.
It may be carried out on daily basis
C.
It is needed when the organization has a good internal control system
D.
It is expensive
Answer: _________
Question 190:
The inventory consists of about one per cent of all assets. The client has imposed restriction on auditor to prohibit observation of stock take. The auditor cannot apply alternate audit procedures.
A.
Unqualified opinion
B.
Qualified opinion
C.
Disclaimer of opinion
D.
Adverse opinion
Answer: _________
Question 191:
Management audit implies
A.
Audit undertaken on behalf of the management
B.
Evaluating the performance of various management processes and functions
C.
Audit undertaken on behalf of the government to punish the management
D.
Compulsory audit
Answer: _________
Question 192:
Which of the following is not corroborative evidence?
A.
Minutes of meetings
B.
Confirmations from debtors
C.
Information gathered by auditor through observation
D.
Worksheet supporting consolidated financial statements
Answer: _________
Question 193:
Internal audit is helpful in
A.
Prevention of errors and frauds
B.
Detection of errors and frauds
C.
Auditing items in depth
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 194:
While vouching, how will the auditor ensure that all credit sales transactions have been recorded by the entity?
A.
Examining cut off points
B.
Matching entries in the sales book against renumbered sales invoices and goods' outward notes
C.
Counting the number of invoices and matching the number with entries on sales book
D.
Both A and B
Answer: _________
Question 195:
The date on auditor's report should not be
A.
The data of AGM
B.
Later than the date on which the accounts are approved in board's meeting
C.
Earlier than the date on which the accounts are approved by the management
D.
Both A and B
Answer: _________
Question 196:
Payment for wage should be vouched with the help of:
A.
Piece work statement
B.
Wage sheets
C.
Minutes book
D.
Bank pass book
Answer: _________
Question 197:
Checking the valuation of assets is a part of:
A.
Routine Checking
B.
Vouching
C.
Verification
D.
Internal check
Answer: _________
Question 198:
In how many days will the auditor write to the Registrar of companies regarding the acceptance of his appointment
A.
7 days
B.
10 days
C.
20 days
D.
30 days
Answer: _________
Question 199:
The internal auditors of a joint-stock company
A.
Need not possess the qualification laid down in the Companies Act
B.
Should be chartered accountants
C.
Should be chartered accountants or cost accountants
D.
Should hold some other professional qualifications
Answer: _________
Question 200:
Auditors of a company have to report to the
A.
Board of directors
B.
Managing director
C.
Institutional investors
D.
Shareholders at the annual general meeting
Answer: _________
Question 201:
'Goods sent on approval basis' have been recorded as 'Credit sales'. This is an example of:
A.
Error of principle
B.
Error of commission
C.
Error of omission
D.
Error of duplication
Answer: _________
Question 202:
Under vouching, checking is done of:
A.
Books of original entry
B.
Final books of accounts
C.
Balance sheet
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 203:
Which of the following is a basic evidence of a transaction?
A.
Journal entry
B.
Cash book
C.
Voucher
D.
Pass book
Answer: _________
Question 204:
A written plan containing the details regarding the conduct of a particular audit is called
A.
Audit programme
B.
Audit memorandum
C.
Audit notebook
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 205:
The Audit of Joint Stock Company is:
A.
Compulsory
B.
Optional
C.
Voluntary
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 206:
Vouching is concerned with:
A.
Verification of authority and authenticity of transaction
B.
Validity of documentary evidences
C.
Accuracy of recorded entries and postings in books
D.
All of above
Answer: _________
Question 207:
Which one of the following is the auditor of a company?
A.
Professional chartered accountant
B.
A body corporate
C.
An officer or employee of the company
D.
A person who is in the service of an officer or employee of that company
Answer: _________
Question 208:
Which of the following sections of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with qualifications of the auditor?
A.
Section 141
B.
Section 224(1) and section 224(2)
C.
Section 226(3) and section 226(4)
D.
Section 224(3) and section 224
Answer: _________
Question 209:
A company auditor at a time cannot be the auditor of more than how many companies:
A.
more than 10 companies
B.
more than 20 companies
C.
more than 50 companies
D.
no limit is prescribed
Answer: _________
Question 210:
Vouching may be termed as:
A.
Identification of the documentary evidence supporting the transaction
B.
Verification of the documents supporting the transaction
C.
Authentication of the document supporting the transaction
D.
Verification of the accuracy and authenticity of the transaction
Answer: _________
Question 211:
Which of the following is not included under the powers and the rights of an auditor in the companies act, 1956?
A.
Right to see the books of accounts
B.
Right to call the general meeting
C.
Right to attend the general meeting
D.
Right to receive information of general meeting
Answer: _________
Question 212:
A small sole business generally does not require auditing because
A.
Its area is limited
B.
Its owner has complete control over it
C.
It is not mandatory by law
D.
All of these
Answer: _________
Question 213:
An audit which is compulsory by the law is . . . . . . . .
A.
Government Audit
B.
Internal Audit
C.
Cost Audit
D.
Statutory Audit
Answer: _________
Question 214:
If a casual vacancy in the office of auditor arises by his resignation it should only be filled by the company in a . . . . . . . .
A.
Board meeting
B.
Extraordinary general meeting
C.
General meeting
D.
Annual general meeting
Answer: _________
Question 215:
"Auditor is a watch-dog and not a blood-bound" was a remark made in the case of:
A.
The London Oil Storage Co. Ltd, 1904
B.
Kingston Cotton Mills Ltd, 1896
C.
London and General Bank, 1895
D.
Delightful Cigarette Co. Ltd, 1943
Answer: _________
Question 216:
Tests of control are not concerned with:
A.
Existence of controls
B.
Effectiveness of controls
C.
Continuity of controls
D.
Designing of controls
Answer: _________
Question 217:
What is the civil liability of a company auditor?
A.
Liability for negligence
B.
For the false statement in the prospectus
C.
For willfully signing a false certificate
D.
For both A and B above
Answer: _________
Question 218:
Companies (Auditor's Report) order is applicable from:
A.
1 st January 1976
B.
1 st July 2003
C.
1 st July 2002
D.
1 st July 1991
Answer: _________
Question 219:
Which of the following statement is true regarding an auditor's working papers?
A.
They document the level of independence maintained by the auditor
B.
They should be considered as the principle support for the auditor's report
C.
They should not contain details regarding weaknesses in the internal control system
D.
They help the auditor to monitor the effectiveness of the audit firm's quality control
Answer: _________
Question 220:
A company auditor addresses his audit report to:
A.
Board of directors
B.
Members
C.
Managing Director
D.
Company Secretary
Answer: _________
Question 221:
Accounting for intangible assets is related to
A.
AS-10
B.
AS-12
C.
AS-24
D.
As-26
Answer: _________
Question 222:
The technique of management audit in which functions and achievements of two or more firms are compared, is called
A.
Comparative analysis
B.
Inter-firm comparison
C.
Routine check
D.
Ratio analysis
Answer: _________
Question 223:
. . . . . . . . audit refers to the evaluation of a company's performance against planned goals in the areas of social responsibilities.
A.
Cost
B.
Social
C.
Interim
D.
Final
Answer: _________
Question 224:
In vouching, salary register should be compared with
A.
Payment book
B.
Cashbook
C.
Wages register
D.
Cash voucher
Answer: _________
Question 225:
The area of operations in auditing includes
A.
Condition of appointment
B.
Needs of related law
C.
Both A and B
D.
Either A or B
Answer: _________
Question 226:
During the audit of accounts receivable, an auditor obtains sufficient and appropriate evidence in support of the existence assertion this evidence can be used to support which of the following assertions in respect of sales?
A.
Existence
B.
Cut-off
C.
Occurrence
D.
Completeness
Answer: _________
Question 227:
Vouching helps the auditors to ascertain whether the entries in the book . . . . . . . . . , this is the basic objective of auditing.
A.
True and fair
B.
Only true
C.
Only fair
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 228:
Which of the following acts do not have any coverage under Secretarial Audit?
A.
The Companies Act, 1956 and the rules made under there
B.
The Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 ('SCRA') and the rules made under there
C.
Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and the rules & regulations made under there
D.
Specific Regulation of Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992
Answer: _________
Question 229:
The statutory auditor is duty-bound to :
A.
Review the managerial processes and procedures
B.
Prepare the final accounts of the company in accordance with the provisions of the company law
C.
Submit a report to the members of the company
D.
Verify physically the various assets of the company
Answer: _________
Question 230:
The main object of an audit of accounts of a joint-stock company is
A.
Detection and prevention of errors
B.
Detection and prevention of frauds
C.
Detection and prevention of errors and frauds
D.
To find out whether the balance sheet and profit and loss account are drawn up properly according to the Companies Act, and they represent a trace and fair view of the state of affairs
Answer: _________
Question 231:
The essential documents for verification of freehold land
A.
Rights statement
B.
Receipt of contractor
C.
Lease receipt
D.
Both A and B
Answer: _________
Question 232:
Which of the following can not be appointed as cost auditor?
A.
Employee of company
B.
A company
C.
Financial audit of company
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 233:
Auditing begins where . . . . . . . . ends.
A.
Selling
B.
Accounting
C.
Inventory
D.
Business
Answer: _________
Question 234:
Final audit implies
A.
Audit of accounts at the end of the year
B.
Checking accounts to reveal frauds
C.
Audit for submitting report immediately at the end of the year
D.
Audit of banking companies
Answer: _________
Question 235:
The financial auditor submits the report to the
A.
Shareholders
B.
Board of directors
C.
Debtors
D.
Employees
Answer: _________
Question 236:
The objective(s) of verification of assets is/are
A.
To examine the existence of assets
B.
To examine the ownership of assets
C.
Proper explanation of mortgage or charge
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 237:
Which of the following is not a function of an auditor?
A.
Checking errors and frauds
B.
Correcting errors and frauds
C.
Vouching with original documents
D.
Preparing final accounts
Answer: _________
Question 238:
To verify cash transactions, what is necessary?
A.
System of internal control
B.
Check all transactions
C.
Documentary evidence for every transaction
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 239:
The examination of cost accounts and statements is called
A.
Complete audit
B.
Interim audit
C.
Cost audit
D.
Internal audit
Answer: _________
Question 240:
Which of the following statements is correct?
A.
Valuation is a part of verification
B.
Verification is a part of the valuation
C.
Verification has nothing to do with valuation
D.
Auditor is a valuer
Answer: _________
Question 241:
Which of the following statements is correct:
A.
Auditing is compulsory for all business concerns
B.
Auditing ensures complete accuracy of accounts
C.
Auditing guarantess accuracy of accounts
D.
Auditing does not guarantee accuracy of accounts
Answer: _________
Question 242:
Which of the following laws is applicable for the professional Misconduct observed at a factory premise on the part of an Auditor?
A.
Code of Civil Procedure
B.
Code of Criminal Procedures
C.
Companies Act, 2013
D.
Factories Act, 1948
Answer: _________
Question 243:
Domestic use of office telephone is
A.
Embezzlement of labor
B.
Embezzlement of property
C.
Embezzlement of convenience
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 244:
The quantity of audit working papers complied on engagement would most be affected by:
A.
Management's integrity
B.
Auditor's experience and professional judgment
C.
Auditor's qualification
D.
Control risk
Answer: _________
Question 245:
The auditor has a right to:
A.
Obtain information and explanation
B.
Obtain information and explanation from the employees and officers
C.
Obtain information and explanation necessary for the purpose of audit
D.
Both B and C
Answer: _________
Question 246:
Report of Cost Audit is to be submitted to
A.
the Company Secretary
B.
the shareholders in the Annual General Meeting
C.
the Central Government
D.
none of the above
Answer: _________
Question 247:
Valuation of assets on wrong basis is
A.
technical error
B.
clerical error
C.
compensating error
D.
error of principle
Answer: _________
Question 248:
. . . . . . . . the audit risks . . . . . . . . the materiality and . . . . . . . . the audit effort.
A.
Lower, higher, lower
B.
Lower, lower, higher
C.
Higher, lower, lower
D.
Lower, higher, higher
Answer: _________
Question 249:
The auditor has serious concern about the going concern of the company. It is dependent on company's obtaining a working capital loan from a bank which has been applied for. Then management of the company has made full disclosure of these facts in the notes to the balance sheet. The auditor is satisfied with the level of disclosure. He should issue
A.
Unqualified opinion
B.
Unqualified opinion with reference to notes to the accounts
C.
Qualified opinion
D.
Disclaimer of opinion
Answer: _________
Question 250:
The work of audit begins, where the following ends
A.
Business
B.
Stock valuation
C.
Sales
D.
Accounting
Answer: _________
Question 251:
Consider the following elements: 1. Scope of audit 2. Validity of appointment 3. Knowledge about business 4. Instruction to client 5. Division of work among audit clerks The correct sequence of these elements for the commencement of a new audit will be
A.
2, 1, 3, 4, 5
B.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C.
5, 1, 4, 3, 2
D.
4, 1, 3, 2, 5
Answer: _________
Question 252:
Auditing and accounting are concerned with which of the following financial statements?
A.
Auditing uses the theory of evidence to verify the financial information made available by accountancy
B.
Auditing lends credibility dimension and quality dimension to the financial statements prepared by the accountant
C.
Auditor should have a thorough knowledge of accounting concepts and convention to enable opinion on financial statements
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 253:
What is the first stage of energy audit?
A.
Survey
B.
Report
C.
Checking
D.
Preparation
Answer: _________
Question 254:
In how many days from the registration, the first Auditor of the Company be appointed?
A.
10
B.
20
C.
30
D.
60
Answer: _________
Question 255:
Under which Section of Companies Act. The remuneration of the Auditor has been discussed?
A.
Section 224 (2)
B.
Section 224 (8)
C.
Section 225
D.
Section 231
Answer: _________
Question 256:
Which of the following can be accepted as a supporting document?
A.
Invoice/Challan
B.
Debit note/Credit note
C.
E-mails/letters
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 257:
A flow chart, made by the auditor, of an entity's internal control system is a graphic representation that depicts the auditor's:
A.
Understanding of the system
B.
Understanding of fraud risk factors
C.
Documentation of assessment of control risk
D.
Both A and C
Answer: _________
Question 258:
The objective of the ordinary audit of financial statements is the expression of an opinion on
A.
The fairness of the financial statements
B.
The accuracy of the financial statements
C.
The accuracy of the annual report
D.
The balance sheet and income statement
Answer: _________
Question 259:
Who requires a legal audit?
A.
Sole trader
B.
Partnership
C.
Public limited company
D.
Joint Hindu Family Business
Answer: _________
Question 260:
If the auditor believes that the financial statements are fairly stated or is unable to reach and conclusion because of insufficient evidence, the auditor
A.
Should withdraw from the engagement
B.
Should request an increase in audit fees so that more resources can be used to conduct the audit
C.
Has the responsibility of notifying financial statements, users through the auditor's report
D.
Should notify regulators of the circumstances
Answer: _________
Question 261:
If an auditor does something wrongfully in the performance of his duties, resulting in a financial loss to the company, he will be held guilty of :
A.
Negligence
B.
Misfeasance
C.
Criminal act
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 262:
Concurrent audit is a part of:
A.
Internal check system
B.
Continuous audit
C.
Internal audit system
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 263:
Which industries fall under strategic area? 1. Industries related to equipments for safety and power generation. 2. Electricity, road and steel industries. 3. Industries related to railway and mineral products. 4. Health and education related industry. Select the correct answer:
A.
Only 1
B.
Only 2
C.
Both 3 and 4
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 264:
The audit which is performed by a statutory auditor throughout the year is known as:
A.
Internal audit
B.
Interim audit
C.
Annual audit
D.
Continuous audit
Answer: _________
Question 265:
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true? 1. Audit can be done by any person. 2. Auditing is guarantee of 100% correctness. 3. Errors can be detected and prevented from auditing. 4. Auditing is the examination of books and statements.
A.
Both 1 and 2
B.
Both 2 and 3
C.
Both 3 and 4
D.
1, 2 and 4
Answer: _________
Question 266:
When an auditor delegates work to his assistants, then
A.
He is responsible for work performed by the assistants
B.
He is not responsible for the work done by his assistants
C.
He is responsible only when he had not taken written permission from the management of the company in this regard
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 267:
The auditor gives in his report his
A.
Decision
B.
Opinion
C.
Guarantee of the correctness of accounts
D.
All of these
Answer: _________
Question 268:
Interim audit refers to:
A.
Audit of accounts just after one accounting year
B.
Audit of accounts after 5 years
C.
An audit which is generally conducted in between two annual audits
D.
It is an audit which is prepared to decide the % of commission to be paid to the manager on the basis of the sales record
Answer: _________
Question 269:
To whom special audit report is addressed?
A.
Manager
B.
Director
C.
Central Government
D.
Shareholders
Answer: _________
Question 270:
The beneficiary(s) of audit report is/are 1. Creditor 2. Income tax authority 3. Director 4. Government Select the correct answer:
A.
Only 1
B.
Both 2 and 4
C.
Both 3 and 4
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 271:
Which of the following is NOT a function performed by a company secretary?
A.
CS as an agent of Top Management
B.
CS as a watch-dog
C.
CS as a proxy to the members of BOD
D.
CS as an Accountant
Answer: _________
Question 272:
Analytical procedures issued in the planning stage of an audit, generally:
A.
Helps to determine the nature, timing and extent of other audit procedures
B.
Directs attention to potential risk areas
C.
Indicates important aspects of business
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 273:
The vacancy caused by the resignation of an auditor is filled only by
A.
the shareholders in the Annual General Meeting
B.
the Board of Directors
C.
the Company Law Board
D.
the managing Director of the Company
Answer: _________
Question 274:
In comparison to the independent auditor, an internal auditor is more likely to be concerned with:
A.
Cost accounting system
B.
Internal control system
C.
Legal compliance
D.
Accounting system
Answer: _________
Question 275:
Match the following. List-I List-II a. Statutory Audit 1. Commerce graduate having proficiency in Accounting b. Secretarial Audit 2. Practicing Company Secretary c. Cost Audit 3. Practicing Chartered Accountant d. Internal Audit 4. Practicing Cost & Works (or Management) Accountant
A.
a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
B.
a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
C.
a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
D.
a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
Answer: _________
Question 276:
Management Audit means
A.
Audit on behalf of management
B.
Systematic appraisal of management's objectives and work
C.
Audit of management accounting
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 277:
Which of the following institutions has to conduct compulsory audit?
A.
Co-operative societies
B.
Life Insurance Company
C.
Trust
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 278:
Which of the following is a part of verification of assets?
A.
Physical verification of existence of assets
B.
Verification of values of assets
C.
Both the above
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 279:
Errors and frauds already committed can be discovered under the system of . . . . . . . .
A.
internal audit, internal check, internal control
B.
external check
C.
statutory audit
D.
interim audit
Answer: _________
Question 280:
Goods sold on the basis of 'sales or return' should:
A.
Be included in the stock
B.
Not be included in the stock
C.
Not be checked by auditor
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 281:
The person who conducts audit is called
A.
Chartered Accountant
B.
Company Secretary
C.
Auditor
D.
Accountant
Answer: _________
Question 282:
The section of the companies Act, 2013 which contains provisions regarding remuneration of the auditor is:
A.
Section 139
B.
Section 141
C.
Section 142
D.
Section 148
Answer: _________
Question 283:
The first auditor of a company will hold office
A.
For a period of one year
B.
Till the holding of statutory meeting
C.
Till the conclusion of the first annual general meeting
D.
Till a new auditor is appointed
Answer: _________
Question 284:
. . . . . . . . is the backbone of auditing.
A.
Accounting
B.
Vouching
C.
Revaluation
D.
Reassessment
Answer: _________
Question 285:
Process of checking the evidence of the entries called . . . . . . . .
A.
Verification
B.
Observation
C.
Vouching
D.
Inspection
Answer: _________
Question 286:
The cost auditor submits the report to the
A.
Shareholders
B.
Board of directors
C.
Employees
D.
Creditors
Answer: _________
Question 287:
Consider the following activities 1. Valuation 2. Verification 3. Vouching The correct sequence of the activities undertaken by an auditor is
A.
3, 1, 2
B.
3, 2, 1
C.
2, 3, 1
D.
1, 2, 3
Answer: _________
Question 288:
Which of the following statements is not true?
A.
Management fraud is difficult to detect than employee fraud
B.
An internal control system reduces the possibility of occurrence of employee fraud and management fraud
C.
The auditor's responsibility for the detection and prevention of errors and fraud is similar
D.
None of the above
E.
Valuation of assets is the responsibility of the management
F.
The auditor can rely on a certificate issued by an authorized valuationer as to the valuation of assets in the balance sheet
G.
The auditor should value the asset as per generally accepted accounting principle
H.
Valuation is no part of auditor's duty
Answer: _________
Question 289:
Management audit is done by
A.
Chartered Accountant
B.
Company Secretary
C.
Manager
D.
Any Qualified Person
Answer: _________
Question 290:
The objective(s) of vouching is/are
A.
No knowledge of entire business transactions
B.
Authorisation of transactions
C.
Partial knowledge of the transactions unrelated to business
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 291:
"Disclaimer of Opinion" is issued, when the Auditor is-
A.
unable to frame an opinion
B.
in disagreement with the records kept by the management
C.
not in an agreement with the stand taken by the management in respect of a material issue
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 292:
For all audits of financial statements made in accordance with AAS14, the use of analytical procedures is at the discretion of the auditor in which stage?
A.
Substantive testing
B.
Planning stage
C.
Overall review stage
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 293:
Internal auditor is appointed by:
A.
Shareholders
B.
Statutory auditor
C.
Institute of Internal Auditors of India
D.
Board of Directors
Answer: _________
Question 294:
The performance of tests of control is documented in:
A.
Audit programme
B.
Flow charts
C.
Working papers
D.
Any of the above
Answer: _________
Question 295:
An auditor is like a:
A.
Blood haunt
B.
Watch dog
C.
May both according to situation
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 296:
Which among the following is not associated with an advantage of audit?
A.
Correct settlement of claim from the insurance company
B.
Borrowings from the banks made easy
C.
Income tax authority generally accepts the audited accounts to be correct
D.
It facilitates the settlement of the accounts of a deceased partner
Answer: _________
Question 297:
Which of the following is not the duty of a company auditor:
A.
To make a report to the members of the company on the accounts examined by him
B.
To enquire whether loans and advances made by the company on the basis of security have been properly secured
C.
Where it is stated in the books of the company that shares have been allotted for cash, to enquire whether cash has actually been received in respect of such allotment
D.
To physically verify the value of stock in hand at the close of the year
Answer: _________
Question 298:
Who can check the minute book?
A.
Shareholder - without any fee
B.
Debentureholder - on payment of fee
C.
any person - on payment of fee
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 299:
The retiring auditor does not have a right to
A.
make written representations
B.
get his representations circulated
C.
be heard at the meeting
D.
speak as a member of the company
Answer: _________
Question 300:
The work of continuous auditor is
A.
loose
B.
medium
C.
Sharp
D.
Similar
Answer: _________
Question 301:
Home use of office laptop is
A.
Embezzlement of labor
B.
Embezzlement of goods
C.
Embezzlement of property
D.
Embezzlement of cash
Answer: _________
Question 302:
Working papers which contain a record of the audit work done, are the property of
A.
the company
B.
the auditor
C.
the company and the auditor both
D.
the Company Law Board
Answer: _________
Question 303:
Audit programme is prepared by:
A.
The auditor
B.
The client
C.
The audit assistants
D.
The auditor and his audit assistants
Answer: _________
Question 304:
Verification is the process by which an auditor satisfies himself about the accuracy of
A.
cash sales and credit sales
B.
wages and salaries
C.
assets and liabilities
D.
commission and discounts
Answer: _________
Question 305:
For Tata Company Ltd., auditing is-
A.
necessity
B.
luxury
C.
symbol of prestige
D.
necessity and luxury both
Answer: _________
Question 306:
Purchase of machinery is a . . . . . . . .
A.
revenue receipt
B.
capital receipt
C.
capital expenditure
D.
revenue expenditure
Answer: _________
Question 307:
Inspection report/receiving report supports entries in:
A.
Sales book and sales return book
B.
Purchase book and sales return book
C.
Cash book and purchase book
D.
Sales book and purchase return book
Answer: _________
Question 308:
In order to vouch bought ledger, the auditor obtain confirmations from creditors. The principal reason for the auditor to examine suppliers statements at balance sheet date is to obtain evidence that:
A.
The supplier exist
B.
There are no unrecorded liabilities
C.
Recorded purchases actually occurred
D.
To link creditors with cash book entries
Answer: _________
Question 309:
Instruction of audit issued by controller and auditor general of India . . . . . . . .
A.
Statutory Audit
B.
Final Audit
C.
Management Audit
D.
Government Audit
Answer: _________
Question 310:
Sale of land is a . . . . . . . .
A.
revenue receipt
B.
capital receipt
C.
capital expenditure
D.
revenue expenditure
Answer: _________
Question 311:
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding removal of first auditor before expiry of the term?
A.
He is removed at a general meeting
B.
The shareholders are authorized to do so
C.
The approval of the Central Government is required for such removal
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 312:
Civil liability of an auditor implies liability for:
A.
Misappropriation of cash
B.
Misappropriation of goods
C.
Fraud
D.
Misfeasance
Answer: _________
Question 313:
Which of the following is not an inherent limitation of internal control system?
A.
Management override
B.
Collusion among employees
C.
Inefficiency of internal auditor
D.
Abuse of authority
Answer: _________
Question 314:
A Statutory Auditor of a private limited company is duty-bound to submit his report to:
A.
The financial institutions
B.
The Government through the Registrar of Companies
C.
The Managing Director of the Company
D.
The Shareholders of the Company in the Annual General Meeting
Answer: _________
Question 315:
When auditing prepaid insurance, an auditor discovers that the insurance policy bond on building is not available for inspection. This may indicate:
A.
No insurance has been undertaken for building
B.
Lien on building
C.
Insurance premium has not been paid
D.
Insurance premium paid but not recorded
Answer: _________
Question 316:
The scope of internal audit is decided by the:
A.
Shareholders
B.
Management
C.
Government
D.
Law
Answer: _________
Question 317:
If the Board of Directors fails to appoint the first auditor, then the first auditor is appointed by
A.
Company in its annual general meeting
B.
Central Government
C.
Registrar
D.
Company Law Board
Answer: _________
Question 318:
Balance Sheet audit is useful when:
A.
Concern is very large
B.
Concern is very small
C.
Internal check is weak
D.
No audit system exists
Answer: _________
Question 319:
"Cost Audit" means:
A.
Audit by a Cost Accountant
B.
Audit of Cost Account
C.
Auditing the Cost of Goods produced
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 320:
Floating assets are valued at:
A.
Cost
B.
Market price
C.
Cost or market price whichever is lower
D.
Cost less depreciation
Answer: _________
Question 321:
The auditor should state the reasons for his reservations in audit report and should try to quantify the effect on them. This should be done in case he has expressed- (i) A qualified opinion (ii) An unqualified opinion with emphasis of matter paragraph (iii) An adverse opinion (iv) A disclaimer of opinion
A.
(i) only
B.
(i) and (iv) only
C.
(i), (iii) and (iv) only
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 322:
The auditor of the company-
A.
Shareholders have the right to attend every general meeting
B.
The right to attend only such meeting where the accounts are discussed
C.
The company has the right to attend only the annual general meeting
D.
The right to attend only such annual general meetings at which the governing board decides to control it
Answer: _________
Question 323:
The process that entails a proper and rational distribution of work between the members of the staff of the organization is called
A.
Internal Audit
B.
Internal Check
C.
Internal Evaluation
D.
Internal Management
Answer: _________
Question 324:
The process of checking documentary evidence to ascertain the accuracy of accounting records is called:
A.
Verification
B.
Routine checking
C.
Vouching
D.
Internal check
Answer: _________
Question 325:
Audit at the end of the year is known as:
A.
Periodical audit
B.
Standard audit
C.
Interim audit
D.
Continuous audit
Answer: _________
Question 326:
The subsidiary object of auditing is:
A.
Detection and prevention of errors
B.
Detection and prevention of frauds
C.
Detection and prevention of errors and frauds
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 327:
The cost audit report has to be submitted within . . . . . . . . days of the closure of the books of account (or end of the accounting period).
A.
45
B.
60
C.
90
D.
120
Answer: _________
Question 328:
The most important objective of internal audit is
A.
Early detection of inaccuracies and frauds
B.
To be helpful in final audit
C.
Prompt verification of annual accounts
D.
Ensuring regular accounting
Answer: _________
Question 329:
The nature, timing and extent of substantive procedures is related to assessed level of control risk:
A.
Randomly
B.
Disproportionately
C.
Directly
D.
Inversely
Answer: _________
Question 330:
Test Checking refers to:
A.
Testing of accounts and records
B.
Checking of selected number of transactions
C.
Examination of adjusting and closing entries
D.
Checking of all transactions recorded
Answer: _________
Question 331:
The verification of the authority and authenticity of transaction recorded in the books of accounts is called
A.
Verification
B.
Internal Audit
C.
Vouching
D.
Investigation
Answer: _________
Question 332:
Management audit is
A.
Statutory
B.
Optional
C.
Compulsory
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 333:
Which of the following financial statements assertions are addressed by testing the cut off for plant asset addition?
A.
Existence and ownership
B.
Valuation and disclosure
C.
Possession and ownership
D.
Completeness and valuation
Answer: _________
Question 334:
Internal audit is done:
A.
To help management in declaring dividend
B.
To stop capital erosion
C.
To reduce cost of production
D.
To guide in price fixation
Answer: _________
Question 335:
An enquiry regarding the value, ownership title, existence and possession of an asset is called
A.
Vouching
B.
Valuation
C.
Verification
D.
Investigation
Answer: _________
Question 336:
The client changed method of depreciation from straight line to written down value method. This has been disclosed as a note to the financial statements. It has an immaterial effect on the current financial statements. It is expected, however, that the change will have a significant effect on future periods. Which of the following option should the auditor express?
A.
Unqualified opinion
B.
Qualified opinion
C.
Disclaimer of opinion
D.
Adverse opinion
Answer: _________
Question 337:
An auditor is held liable under C.A. Act 1949 for:
A.
negligence
B.
misfeasance
C.
professional misconduct
D.
breach of contract
Answer: _________
Question 338:
The comptroller and auditor general of India is appointed by the President of India
A.
for 9 years
B.
on a year to year basis
C.
for 6 years
D.
for 5 years
Answer: _________
Question 339:
The principal auditor, as per clarification issued by the ICAI, does not have any right to:
A.
Inspect working papers of the branch auditor
B.
Visit branches
C.
Seek information necessary for audit purposes
D.
Incorporate the branch audit report in his audit report
Answer: _________
Question 340:
Stock should be valued at:
A.
Cost
B.
Market price
C.
Cost or Market price whichever is lower
D.
Cost less depreciation
Answer: _________
Question 341:
The balance of cash in often between one to five per cent of total assets. Tick the most appropriate statement with regard to verification of cash in context of this:
A.
Cash in always material as materiality is qualitative concept
B.
No audit of cash is needed when, in auditor's opinion, cash is immaterial. Materiality is a relative concept
C.
The cash balance need only be audited if the balance is in overdraft
D.
Cash is to be verified if control risk is assessed as high
Answer: _________
Question 342:
The current file of the auditor's working papers, generally, should include:
A.
A flowchart of the internal controls
B.
Organisation charts
C.
A copy of financial statements
D.
Copies of bond and debentures
Answer: _________
Question 343:
According to Section 227(1) of Companies Act 1956, the auditor does not have the right-
A.
To sign the audit report
B.
To see the books, accounts and vouchers of company
C.
To obtain information and explanation
D.
To correct any wrong description
Answer: _________
Question 344:
Contents of Audit Report are given in companies Act under section:
A.
244
B.
255
C.
226
D.
227
Answer: _________
Question 345:
"Balance Sheet Audit" in India means the audit of:
A.
Balance Sheet and Profit and Loss Account items
B.
Balance Sheet items
C.
Assets items of Balance Sheet
D.
Liability items of Balance Sheet
Answer: _________
Question 346:
Routine check-up is
A.
By the managers of the organization
B.
By the employees of the organization
C.
By the auditors
D.
By shareholders
Answer: _________
Question 347:
Which of the following statements is not true with respect to management representations obtained as per AAS11?
A.
Authenticated copy of relevant minutes of meetings may be regarded as management representation
B.
It should always be in working
C.
It may be dated prior to the report date
D.
It should be addressed to the auditor
Answer: _________
Question 348:
The creditor's accounts, generally, have credit balance. Debit balance may be due to:
A.
Advance paid against an order
B.
Goods returned
C.
Wrong debit to supplier account
D.
Any of these
Answer: _________
Question 349:
Which of the following implies an enquiry into the valuation, ownership, title, existence and possession of assets?
A.
Vouching
B.
Verification
C.
Internal check
D.
Routine checking
Answer: _________
Question 350:
A Company Auditor may be removed by the
A.
Managing Director
B.
Board of Directors
C.
Shareholders in General Meeting
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 351:
When is evidential matter, generally, considered sufficient?
A.
When it constitutes entire population
B.
When it is enough to provide a basis for giving reasonable assurance regarding truthfulness
C.
When it is objective and relevant
D.
When auditor collects and evaluates it independently
Answer: _________
Question 352:
Which one of the following is not an objective of auditing?
A.
Detection of errors
B.
Verification of accounts
C.
Punishment of frauds
D.
Preventions of frauds
Answer: _________
Question 353:
An Auditor makes effort to detect mainly following types of fraud
A.
Misappropriation of cash
B.
Misappropriation of goods
C.
Frauds in books of accounts
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 354:
Schedule II of the Companies Act, 2013 has prescribed rates of depreciation for double shift and triple shift working for which one of the following assets?
A.
Building
B.
Plant and Machinery
C.
Furniture and fittings
D.
Ships
Answer: _________
Question 355:
Which of the following is a revenue reserve?
A.
Capital redemption reserve
B.
Security premium account
C.
Debenture redemption reserve
D.
Capital reserve
Answer: _________
Question 356:
Which of the following statement is correct?
A.
Audit covers several years
B.
Audit and investigation both covers several years
C.
Investigation covers several years
D.
To know the average earning capacity of an enterprise is one of the objects of audit
Answer: _________
Question 357:
For which of the following the company auditor has civil liability?
A.
Willfully giving false details
B.
Negligence
C.
Misstatement in prospectus
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 358:
With reference to techniques of auditing, which of the following statement is correct? (1) Routine checking means daily checking of books of accounts. (2) Test checking should always be applied in cash book. Select the correct answer using the option given below
A.
Only 1
B.
Only 2
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: _________
Question 359:
The auditor's permanent working paper file should not normally, include:
A.
Extracts from client's bank statements
B.
Past year's financial statements
C.
Attorney's letters
D.
Debt agreements
Answer: _________
Question 360:
In case of a company, which of the following is not correctly matched?
A.
Internal audit ⇔ Obligatory
B.
Statutory audit ⇔ Mandatory
C.
Continuous audit ⇔ Optional
D.
Management audit ⇔ Voluntary
Answer: _________
Question 361:
Which of the following statements is not correct about materiality?
A.
Materiality is a relative concept
B.
Materiality judgments involve both quantitative and qualitative judgments
C.
Auditor's consideration of materiality is influenced by the auditor's perception of the needs of an informed decision maker who will rely on the financial statements
D.
At the planning state, the auditor considers materiality at the financial statement level only
Answer: _________
Question 362:
An auditor conducts a surprise check on the pay day, i.e., the day wages and salaries are paid. The primary purpose of this audit procedure is to
A.
Ensure there are no ghost workers
B.
Ensure the casual workers employed are authorized by the supervisor
C.
Test procedures for distributing paycheques
D.
Obtain an understanding of the internal control system
Answer: _________
Question 363:
The management of a company, to which AS3 is not applicable, does not include statement of cash flows in its annual report. The auditor should express:
A.
Unqualified opinion
B.
Qualified opinion
C.
Adverse opinion
D.
Any of these depending upon materiality and pervasiveness and adequacy of disclosure
Answer: _________
Question 364:
Who is qualified to be a company auditor?
A.
Employee of the company
B.
Body corporate
C.
Person indebted to the company for an amount exceeding Rs. 1,000
D.
Chartered accountant
Answer: _________
Question 365:
Statement I: Safety audit is a risk management tools. Statement II: Management audit is a part of traditional auditing.
A.
Statement I is correct
B.
Statement II is correct
C.
Both statements are correct
D.
Both statements are incorrect
Answer: _________
Question 366:
The audit conducted to check and examine the efficiency and effectiveness of management is called
A.
Management audit
B.
Cost audit
C.
Energy audit
D.
Safety audit
Answer: _________
Question 367:
Which report will be submitted by an auditor, if he is dissatisfied regarding the facts and informations?
A.
Qualified report
B.
Clean report
C.
Management report
D.
Cost report
Answer: _________
Question 368:
When an independent auditor relies on the work of an internal auditor, he should
A.
Examine the scope of the internal auditor's work
B.
Examine the system of supervising review and documentation of the internal auditor's work
C.
Examine the adequacy of the related-audit programme
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 369:
Consider the following activities and choose the correct sequence of these activities undertaking by auditor: 1. Valuation 2. Verification 3. Vouching
A.
3, 1 and 2
B.
3, 2 and 1
C.
2, 3 and 1
D.
1, 2 and 3
Answer: _________
Question 370:
The cost auditor gives his report to the
A.
Directors
B.
Shareholders
C.
Managers
D.
Company law board
Answer: _________
Question 371:
An analysis of fixed assets account has revealed possibility of unrecorded sale of plant and machinery. Which of the following audit procedures may be adopted to discover it?
A.
Examination of property tax files
B.
Inquiry of plant manager
C.
Examination of debits to accumulated depreciation
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 372:
Which of the following is/are beneficiary(s) of cost audit? 1. Manager 2. Shareholders and investors 3. Society and consumers 4. Government Select the correct answer:
A.
Both 2 and 3
B.
Both 1 and 4
C.
2, 3 and 4
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 373:
Voucher should be addressed to the . . . . . . . .
A.
Auditor
B.
Client
C.
Employee
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 374:
In order to audit petty cash expenses, the auditor has to check
A.
Petty cash register
B.
Internal controls
C.
Reconciliation cash has been repaid to the client
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 375:
An auditor is a watchdog but not a bloodhound. This statement has been given in decision of which case?
A.
Kingston cotton mills case
B.
Garner vs Murray case
C.
Paglar cotton mills case
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 376:
The main objective of Auditing is
A.
To detect errors and fraud
B.
To prevent errors and fraud
C.
To find out accuracy completeness and validity of accounts and documents
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 377:
The liability of the auditor can be
A.
Only civil
B.
Only criminal
C.
Either civil or criminal
D.
Civil or criminal
Answer: _________
Question 378:
The definite period of auditing is
A.
1 financial year
B.
2 financial years
C.
3 financial years
D.
5 financial years
Answer: _________
Question 379:
The main objective of an audit is
A.
Expression of opinion
B.
Detection and prevention of fraud and error
C.
Both A and B
D.
Depends on the type of audit
Answer: _________
Question 380:
Which of the point is not to be considered while checking, a voucher?
A.
Name of party
B.
Serial number of voucher
C.
Credit period of payment
D.
Accounting entry
Answer: _________
Question 381:
Where does balance sheet audit prove to be more efficient?
A.
Where the volume of transactions is very high
B.
Where efficient system of internal control is applied
C.
Where qualified accountants are engaged
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 382:
Cost audit was started in the following year
A.
1965
B.
1968
C.
1971
D.
1975
Answer: _________
Question 383:
The arrangement under which such a system of work is deposited so that the work of one employee is checked by another employee only in the progress of work is called
A.
Internal audit
B.
Internal control
C.
Own audit
D.
Routine checks
Answer: _________
Question 384:
Which among the following are NOT qualified to be appointed as auditor of a company? (1) An individual who is a Chartered Accountant and holds a Certificate of Practice as per CA Act, 1949 (2) A limited liability partnership firm, which has all partners as Chartered Accountants (3) Officer or employee of a company who is qualified Chartered Accountant degree holder too (4) Any Chartered Accountant whose appointment will result in the person being the auditor of more than 10 companies Choose the most appropriate option:
A.
(1) and (2)
B.
(2), (3) and (4)
C.
(3) and (4)
D.
(1), (2) and (4)
Answer: _________
Question 385:
An auditor should ascertain that a company pays dividends out of:
A.
profits of the current year
B.
undistributed profits of the preceding years
C.
total of A and B
D.
none of the above
Answer: _________
Question 386:
When issuing unqualified opinion, the auditor who evaluates the audit findings should be satisfied that the:
A.
Amount of known misstatement is documented in working papers
B.
Estimates of the total likely misstatement is less than materiality level
C.
Estimates of the total likely misstatement is more than materiality level
D.
Estimates of the total likely misstatement cannot be made
Answer: _________
Question 387:
Continuous audit is specially needed for:
A.
any trading concern
B.
small concern
C.
banking companies
D.
any manufacturing concern
Answer: _________
Question 388:
In case the directions fail to appoint first auditor (s), the shareholders shall appoint them at . . . . . . . . By passing a resolution.
A.
a general meeting
B.
first annual general meeting
C.
statutory meeting
D.
annual general meeting
Answer: _________
Question 389:
Which of the following factors is most important in determining the appropriations of audit evidence?
A.
The reliability of audit evidence and its relevance in meeting the audit objective
B.
The objectivity and integrity of the auditor
C.
The quantity of audit evidence
D.
The independence of the source of evidence
Answer: _________
Question 390:
What would most effectively describe the risk of incorrect acceptance in terms of substantive audit testing?
A.
The auditor has ascertained that the balance is materially correct when in actual fact it is not
B.
The auditor concludes the balance is materially misstated when in actual fact is not
C.
The auditor has rejected an item from sample which was not supported by documentary evidence
D.
He applies random sampling on data which is inaccurate and inconsistent
Answer: _________
Question 391:
. . . . . . . . starts where . . . . . . . . ends.
A.
Accounting, auditing
B.
Auditing, accounting
C.
Vouching, auditing
D.
Accounting, vouching
Answer: _________
Question 392:
Which type of audit is more suitable where there is no satisfactory system of internal check?
A.
Continuous audit
B.
Periodical audit
C.
Balance Sheet audit
D.
Management audit
Answer: _________
Question 393:
Which of the following assets is least likely to be subjected to lien?
A.
Freehold land
B.
Plant and machinery
C.
Leasehold property
D.
Motor vehicles
Answer: _________
Question 394:
Vouching is:
A.
checking of assets
B.
valuation of assets
C.
checking of entries
D.
none of these
Answer: _________
Question 395:
The educational qualification for an internal auditor of a joint stock company is
A.
It is not necessary to be educated according to the companies act
B.
Must be a chartered accountant
C.
Must be a chartered accountant or caste accountant
D.
Any other professional qualification
Answer: _________
Question 396:
To test whether sales have been recorded, the auditor should draw a sample from a file of:
A.
Purchase orders
B.
Sales orders
C.
Sales invoices
D.
Bill of loading
Answer: _________
Question 397:
The work of an auditor is:
A.
To record the books of account
B.
To compile various accounts books
C.
Review the accounts
D.
Interpret to draw a conclusion from an account
Answer: _________
Question 398:
A Voucher is a . . . . . . . .
A.
document for support of an entry made in books of accounts
B.
invoice received from suppliers
C.
receipt issued to a customer for cash
D.
dispatch Receipt
Answer: _________
Question 399:
An arrangement of staff duties whereby no one person is allowed to record every aspect of a transaction is called
A.
Internal Administration
B.
Internal Check
C.
Internal Audit
D.
Internal Management
Answer: _________
Question 400:
Which of the following statement is/are correct? (1) Internal check is a part of internal audit (2) Internal check in related to arrangement of duties among employees Select the correct answer using the option given below
A.
Only 1
B.
Only 2
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: _________
Question 401:
The management auditors work begins
A.
After the work of a statutory auditor ends
B.
Before the work of a statutory auditor begins
C.
Varies from firm to firm
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 402:
Checking the head of account debited or credited during vouching helps the auditor to
A.
Detect errors of principle
B.
Check whether accounting is proper
C.
Find errors of commission
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 403:
If auditor does not find any irregularity or fallacy and about which there are no complaint, then which report will be submitted by auditor?
A.
Qualified report
B.
Clean report
C.
Management report
D.
Cost report
Answer: _________
Question 404:
If the book value of an asset stands at . . . . . . . . per cent of the original cost, a company need not provide depreciation on it.
A.
Two
B.
Fifteen
C.
Five
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 405:
Internal audit means
A.
Audit undertaken to ascertain the truth and fairness of the state of affairs
B.
Audit undertaken internally to evaluate management functions
C.
Audit undertaken by employees of the organization to check financial irregularities
D.
Audit by an independent auditor to improve internal affairs
Answer: _________
Question 406:
The practical aspects of management audit is/are
A.
Changes in sales
B.
Changes in price
C.
Organisational control
D.
All of these
Answer: _________
Question 407:
Statement I: The scope of valuation is wider than verification. Statement II: Valuation is done after vouching but before verification.
A.
Statement I is true, but statement II is false
B.
Statement II is true, but statement I is false
C.
Both statements are true
D.
Both statements are false
Answer: _________
Question 408:
Valuation is the base of
A.
Verification
B.
Marketing
C.
Vouching
D.
All of these
Answer: _________
Question 409:
When counting cash on hand the auditor should:
A.
Ensure presence of somebody from management
B.
Obtain a receipt from custodian as to its return
C.
Ensure postage and revenue stamps are not counted in physical count
D.
Temporary advances to employees are counted to calculate balance of cash in hand
Answer: _________
Question 410:
In case of sales return, the auditor should check
A.
Credit notes and delivery challans
B.
Whether cash has been repaid to the client
C.
Purchase invoices and goods received notes
D.
Credit notes and goods received notes
Answer: _________
Question 411:
A number of checks and controls exercised in a business to ensure its efficient working are known as . . . . . . . .
A.
Internal Check
B.
Internal Control
C.
Internal Audit
D.
Interim Check
Answer: _________
Question 412:
Special audit may be ordered
A.
By preference shareholders
B.
By central government
C.
By SEBI
D.
By bondholders/debentureholders
Answer: _________
Question 413:
The cost audit was introduced in:
A.
1965
B.
1968
C.
1971
D.
1975
Answer: _________
Question 414:
The subsidiary voucher produced in the absence of primary voucher is called
A.
General voucher
B.
Note Book voucher
C.
Counterfoil
D.
Collateral voucher
Answer: _________
Question 415:
In India, balance sheet audit is synonymous to:
A.
Annual audit
B.
Continuous audit
C.
Detailed audit
D.
Statutory audit
Answer: _________
Question 416:
Propriety audit refers to
A.
verification of accounts
B.
examination of accounts of sole proprietory institutions
C.
examination of need and rationale of expenses
D.
audit of government companies
Answer: _________
Question 417:
In case the auditor gives a disclaimer of opinion in the audit report which of the following paragraph(s) of a standard unqualified audit report are modified?
A.
Scope paragraph
B.
Opinion paragraph
C.
Scope and opinion paragraphs
D.
Introductory, scope and opinion paragraph
Answer: _________
Question 418:
Which one of the following is not considered as relevant voucher while vouching cash sales?
A.
Sales book
B.
Copy of cash memo
C.
Abstract of salesman
D.
Cashier's summaries
Answer: _________
Question 419:
When restrictions that significantly affect the scope of the audit are imposed by the client, the auditor generally should issue which of the following opinion?
A.
Qualified opinion
B.
Disclaimer of opinion
C.
Adverse opinion
D.
Unqualified report with 'an emphasis of matter' paragraph
Answer: _________
Question 420:
Every voucher should be signed by
A.
Accounts Officer
B.
Accountant
C.
Manager
D.
Responsible Official
Answer: _________
Question 421:
The working papers which auditor prepares for financial statements audit are:
A.
Evidence for audit conclusions
B.
Owned by the client
C.
Owned by the auditor
D.
Retained in auditor's office until a change in auditors
Answer: _________
Question 422:
Which of the following statements is not true with regard to teeming and lading?
A.
It results in the deliberate misappropriation of cash receipts
B.
It is associated with cash receipts
C.
If same individual maintains cash receipts and cash payments teeming and lading is likely to exist
D.
To conceal the shortage, the defraud, usually, tries to keep bank and book amounts in daily agreement so that a bank reconciliation will not detect the irregularity
Answer: _________
Question 423:
Analytical procedures are least likely to be use in the audit of:
A.
Cash balance
B.
Investments
C.
Bills receivables
D.
Debtors
Answer: _________
Question 424:
Verification of voucher is called
A.
Routine check
B.
Vouching
C.
Auditing
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 425:
Which of the following is called back-bone of auditing?
A.
Routine checking
B.
Internal check
C.
Accounting
D.
Vouching
Answer: _________
Question 426:
Which of the following is not a revenue expense?
A.
Cost of raising a loan
B.
Cost of accessories of motor vehicles spent at the time of purchase
C.
Expenses incurred for laying of sewers on land purchased
D.
Insurance premium paid at the time of registration of the ship
Answer: _________
Question 427:
Propriety Audit is normally undertaken in case of:
A.
Joint Stock Company
B.
Government Company
C.
Statutory Corporation
D.
Government Departments
Answer: _________
Question 428:
Auditing is compulsory:
A.
in joint stock companies
B.
in sole trading
C.
in partnership
D.
in all the above
Answer: _________
Question 429:
Under companies Act. 1956, cost audit has been made compulsory for certain specified companies, under
A.
Section 209
B.
Section 233
C.
Section 277
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 430:
Which of the following types of audit is not statutorily required for companies in India.
A.
Internal Audit
B.
Cost Audit
C.
Audit of final accounts
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 431:
A sale of Rs. 25,000 to A was entered as a sale to B. This is an example of:
A.
Error of omission
B.
Error of commission
C.
Compensating error
D.
Error of principle
Answer: _________
Question 432:
Examining the books of accounts is the objective of auditing
A.
Social objective
B.
Main objective
C.
Subsidiary objective
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 433:
The process of verification of cost accounts for the accuracy of data and examination of these records to ensure that they adhere to its principles, plans, procedures and objectives can otherwise be called:
A.
Performance Audit
B.
Strategic Audit
C.
Cost Audit
D.
Statutory Audit
Answer: _________
Question 434:
MAOCARO 1988 is applicable to
A.
Banking Companies
B.
Insurance Companies
C.
It ascertains whether the controls are adequate and effective
D.
It evaluates plans to meet the objectives
Answer: _________
Question 435:
Before the work of audit is commenced, the auditor plans out the whole of audit work is called . . . . . . . .
A.
Audit Plan
B.
Audit Note
C.
Audit Programme
D.
Audit Control
Answer: _________
Question 436:
Recording a transaction twice in the books of original entry is an error of . . . . . . . .
A.
principle
B.
commission
C.
duplication
D.
omission
Answer: _________
Question 437:
The auditor of a Government company is appointed by the C & AG. His remuneration is fixed by:
A.
The C & AG
B.
The shareholders
C.
The shareholders at an annual general meeting
D.
The board of directors
Answer: _________
Question 438:
The independence of an internal auditor will most likely be assured if he reports to the:
A.
President Finance
B.
President System
C.
Managing Director
D.
CEO
Answer: _________
Question 439:
Which of the following would prevent double payment of the same voucher?
A.
The person signing the cheque should cancel the supporting documents
B.
Cheques should be signed by at best two persons
C.
The data of payment of vouchers of similar nature should be the same or close to each other
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 440:
Routine checking reduces the
A.
work of an auditor
B.
liability of an auditor
C.
both above
D.
none of the above
Answer: _________
Question 441:
Direct confirmation procedure can be applied to:
A.
Debtors only
B.
Creditors only
C.
Debtors and creditors both
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 442:
Which is not the objective of Auditing?
A.
Recording of original entries
B.
Verification of financial statements
C.
Detection of errors
D.
Detection of frauds
Answer: _________
Question 443:
Depreciation does not arise form . . . . . . . .
A.
Effluxion of time
B.
Use
C.
Obsolescence through technology be market changes
D.
Remarket expectation
Answer: _________
Question 444:
A company auditor can be removed before expiry of his term by:
A.
Shareholders
B.
Board of directors
C.
Central government
D.
State government
Answer: _________
Question 445:
Who among the following can be appointed as special auditor by the Central Government?
A.
The statutory auditor
B.
Chartered accountant in practice
C.
Any chartered accounted who is not in practice
D.
Both A and B
Answer: _________
Question 446:
Which of the following factors would least likely affect the quantity and content of an auditor's working papers?
A.
The assessed level of control risk
B.
The possibility of peer review
C.
The nature of auditor's report
D.
The content of management representation letter
Answer: _________
Question 447:
The judgment that "An Auditor is not a Valuer" was given in
A.
Mekson and Robins Cash
B.
Kingston Cotton Mills Cash
C.
Union Bank of India Cash
D.
London & General Bank Cash
Answer: _________
Question 448:
Which of the following is NOT a method of collecting Audit Evidence?
A.
Reporting
B.
Inspection
C.
Observation
D.
Enquiry
Answer: _________
Question 449:
The auditor's report is submitted to
A.
Directors of the company
B.
Shareholders of the company
C.
Bankers of the company
D.
Creditors of the company
Answer: _________
Question 450:
In determining the level of materiality for an audit, what should not be considered?
A.
Prior year's errors
B.
The auditor's remuneration
C.
Adjusted interim financial statements
D.
Prior year's financial statements
Answer: _________
Question 451:
Verification includes
A.
Valuation
B.
Existence
C.
Ownership and title
D.
All the above
Answer: _________
Question 452:
In respect of forfeiture of shares, the Auditor should see:
A.
Memorandum of Association
B.
Articles of Association
C.
Chairman's Speech
D.
Duties of the Accountant
Answer: _________
Question 453:
The word AUDIRE means:
A.
To tell
B.
To hear
C.
To discuss
D.
To show
Answer: _________
Question 454:
Errors of Omission are:
A.
Technical errors
B.
Errors of principle
C.
Compensating errors
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 455:
Cost Audit is compuslory in
A.
Retail business
B.
Manufacturing companies
C.
Mines
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 456:
If any director is disqualified from being appointed under section 274(1) (g), the auditor should mention this fact in his audit report. For this purpose, how does he determine their eligibility
A.
He obtains a representation from each director
B.
He obtains a management representation
C.
He enquiries from Registrar of Companies
D.
Any one of the above
Answer: _________
Question 457:
Management audit is concerned with verification of:
A.
Profitability of a company
B.
Financial position of a company
C.
Review of the management system and procedures
D.
None of these
Answer: _________
Question 458:
The subject matter of audit is given in the following section of the companies act
A.
224
B.
225
C.
226
D.
227
Answer: _________
Question 459:
A vacancy cause by the resignation of auditor is filled by
A.
Board of Directors
B.
Central Government
C.
General Meeting of Shareholders
D.
Managing Director of the Company
Answer: _________
Question 460:
Which of the following is true about explanatory notes?
A.
These are given by the directors of the company
B.
These are given to adhere to requirements of section 211
C.
These are given by auditors of the company in auditor's report
D.
All of the above
Answer: _________
Question 461:
A file containing the rules for conducting the organization under audit is called
A.
Current file
B.
Permanent file
C.
Routine file
D.
Completion file
Answer: _________
Question 462:
Which of the following statements is, generally, correct about the reliability of audit evidence?
A.
To be reliable, evidence should conclusive rather than persuasive
B.
Effective internal control system provides reliable audit evidence
C.
Evidence obtained from outside sources routed through the client
D.
All are correct
Answer: _________
Question 463:
Audit in depth is synonymous for:
A.
Complete audit
B.
Completed audit
C.
Final audit
D.
Detailed audit
Answer: _________
Question 464:
Which of the following is NOT part of the process of management audit?
A.
Determinations of responsibility center
B.
Review of performance of each responsibility center
C.
Review of organizational structure
D.
Investigating the depreciation method and its application on fixed assets in the company
Answer: _________
Question 465:
Which of the following is not true with regard to verification of assets?
A.
It invoices substantiation of occurrence of transactions
B.
Its objective is to establish existence, ownership, possession, valuation and disclosure of assets
C.
The auditor has to form an opinion on different aspects
D.
All are true
Answer: _________
Question 466:
Protection of investors' is which object of auditing?
A.
Social
B.
Economic
C.
Primary
D.
Subsidiary
Answer: _________
Question 467:
What time does the audit start-
A.
When book-keeping ends
B.
When the accounting work is over
C.
When the management goes on leave
D.
When new partner is admitted
Answer: _________
Question 468:
Auditing and Assurance Standard-2 (AAS-2) are concerned with
A.
Vouching
B.
Valuation of assets and liabilities
C.
Audit planning
D.
Objective and scope of the audit of financial statements
Answer: _________
Question 469:
The auditor of a company can be removed by the following
A.
Board of directors
B.
Company registrar
C.
Debentureholders
D.
General meeting of shareholders
Answer: _________
Question 470:
If the auditor assesses control risk as high-
A.
Document the conclusions
B.
Documents the reasons along with conclusions
C.
Perform tests of control
D.
Perform walk through tests
Answer: _________
Question 471:
Social Audit Report was first brought out by
A.
TISCO
B.
UTI
C.
BHEL
D.
AIR INDIA
Answer: _________
Question 472:
An internal auditor is appointed by
A.
Management
B.
Shareholders
C.
Government
D.
Statutory body
Answer: _________
Question 473:
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of audit programme preparation?
A.
To detect errors or fraud
B.
To comply with GAAP
C.
To gather sufficient appropriate evidence
D.
To assess audit risk
Answer: _________
Question 474:
Which of the following is not a function of an auditor
A.
Detecting and preventing fraud
B.
Writing the books of account
C.
To check airthmatical correctness
D.
Detection and preventing errors
Answer: _________
Question 475:
The approach of management auditor should be
A.
Brief
B.
Internal
C.
Analytical
D.
Configured
Answer: _________
Question 476:
Which of the following is not true about opinion on financial statements?
A.
The auditor should express an opinion on financial statements
B.
His opinion is no guarantee to future viability of business
C.
He is responsible for detection and prevention of frauds and errors in financial statements
D.
He should examine whether recognised accounting principle have been consistently
Answer: _________
Question 477:
The sequence of steps in the auditor's consideration of internal control is as follows:
A.
Obtain an understanding, design substantive test, perform tests of control, and make a preliminary assessment of control risk
B.
Design substantive tests, obtain an understanding, perform tests of control, and make a preliminary assessment of control risk
C.
Obtain an understanding, make a preliminary assessment of control risk, perform tests of control, design substantive procedures
D.
Perform tests of control, obtain and understanding, make a preliminary assessment of control risk, design
Answer: _________
Question 478:
Auditors accumulate evidence to
A.
Defend themselves in the event of a law suit
B.
Justify the conclusion they have, otherwise reached
C.
Satisfy the requirements of the act
D.
Unable them to reach conclusions about the fairness of the financial statements
Answer: _________
Question 479:
Statement I: Energy audit is an indepth check of the amount of energy being utilised. Statement II: Energy audit includes general and preliminary audit.
A.
Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
B.
Statement II is correct, but statement I is incorrect
C.
Both statements are correct
D.
Both statements are incorrect
Answer: _________
Question 480:
'Auditor is not a valuer', was stated in:
A.
Kingston Cotton Mills case
B.
London Oil Storage Co. case
C.
London and General Bank case
D.
None of the above
Answer: _________
Question 481:
This kind of audit is conducted generally between two annual audit . . . . . . . .
A.
Internal Audit
B.
Interim Audit
C.
Final Audit
D.
Continuous Audit
Answer: _________
Question 482:
When accounting work is distributed among the staff members in such a way that the work done by one person is independently and automatically checked by another person the system is called:
A.
Internal audit
B.
Internal check
C.
Test checking
D.
Continuous audit
Answer: _________
Question 483:
The auditor has noticed existence of recurring losses sale of fixed assets this indicates:
A.
Depreciation charges are insufficient
B.
Policy of sale or disposal of fixed assets needs to be reviewed
C.
The sale of assets have not been properly authorized
D.
Accounting errors
Answer: _________
Question 484:
A departure from recognized accounting principle is disclosed in a note to the financial statements. The auditor should:
A.
Issue a standard unqualified audit report
B.
Issue a qualified report
C.
Issue an unqualified report with 'emphasis of matter' paragraph
D.
Disclaim opinion
Answer: _________
Question 485:
Audit of accounts is mandatory under Section 44AB if the total sales are more than
A.
30 lakh rupees
B.
40 lakh rupees
C.
50 lakh rupees
D.
60 lakh rupees
Answer: _________
Question 486:
Of the following, which is the least persuasive type of audit evidence?
A.
Bank statements obtained from the client
B.
Documents obtained by auditor from third parties directly
C.
Carbon copies of sales invoices inspected by the auditor
D.
Computations made by the auditor
Answer: _________
Question 487:
The "Guidance Note on Revenue" issued by the ICAI does not deal with:
A.
Sales revenue
B.
Revenue rendering service
C.
Revenue from sale of fixed assets
D.
Income from interest, dividend
Answer: _________
Question 488:
The tool used by an auditor to monitor and control the progress of audit work is:
A.
engagement diary
B.
audit programme
C.
audit working papers
D.
audit notes
Answer: _________
Question 489:
Following are included in the fraud
A.
Embezzlement of money
B.
Embezzlement of goods
C.
Mistake in accounting
D.
All of these
Answer: _________
Question 490:
By whom the internal auditor is appointed?
A.
Management
B.
Government
C.
Shareholders
D.
Employees
Answer: _________
Answer Key
1:
B
2:
C
3:
D
4:
C
5:
B
6:
A
7:
D
8:
D
9:
B
10:
C
11:
B
12:
B
13:
A
14:
D
15:
D
16:
A
17:
B
18:
B
19:
B
20:
B
21:
D
22:
B
23:
D
24:
D
25:
D
26:
C
27:
B
28:
C
29:
A
30:
C
31:
B
32:
A
33:
A
34:
C
35:
D
36:
B
37:
C
38:
A
39:
B
40:
B
41:
A
42:
A
43:
C
44:
C
45:
B
46:
A
47:
A
48:
C
49:
B
50:
B
51:
B
52:
A
53:
B
54:
D
55:
A
56:
B
57:
D
58:
C
59:
C
60:
D
61:
D
62:
A
63:
D
64:
B
65:
D
66:
B
67:
B
68:
C
69:
D
70:
C
71:
B
72:
C
73:
C
74:
C
75:
D
76:
B
77:
D
78:
C
79:
C
80:
C
81:
D
82:
C
83:
D
84:
B
85:
A
86:
B
87:
C
88:
D
89:
D
90:
B
91:
C
92:
D
93:
A
94:
C
95:
B
96:
D
97:
D
98:
A
99:
A
100:
B
101:
B
102:
D
103:
D
104:
B
105:
D
106:
A
107:
C
108:
C
109:
B
110:
A
111:
D
112:
D
113:
A
114:
C
115:
C
116:
B
117:
B
118:
A
119:
B
120:
C
121:
A
122:
C
123:
B
124:
C
125:
D
126:
B
127:
B
128:
C
129:
A
130:
A
131:
B
132:
A
133:
A
134:
A
135:
A
136:
C
137:
D
138:
B
139:
C
140:
B
141:
B
142:
C
143:
D
144:
D
145:
C
146:
D
147:
C
148:
A
149:
C
150:
A
151:
C
152:
A
153:
D
154:
C
155:
C
156:
D
157:
D
158:
B
159:
A
160:
B
161:
A
162:
A
163:
D
164:
A
165:
D
166:
D
167:
D
168:
A
169:
B
170:
D
171:
C
172:
C
173:
D
174:
A
175:
C
176:
D
177:
C
178:
B
179:
B
180:
D
181:
D
182:
D
183:
B
184:
C
185:
B
186:
A
187:
D
188:
C
189:
C
190:
C
191:
B
192:
D
193:
B
194:
D
195:
C
196:
B
197:
C
198:
D
199:
A
200:
D
201:
A
202:
A
203:
C
204:
A
205:
A
206:
D
207:
A
208:
A
209:
B
210:
B
211:
B
212:
C
213:
D
214:
C
215:
B
216:
D
217:
A
218:
A
219:
B
220:
B
221:
D
222:
B
223:
B
224:
B
225:
C
226:
C
227:
A
228:
N/A
229:
C
230:
D
231:
D
232:
D
233:
B
234:
A
235:
A
236:
D
237:
D
238:
D
239:
C
240:
A
241:
D
242:
N/A
243:
B
244:
B
245:
D
246:
C
247:
D
248:
A
249:
B
250:
D
251:
A
252:
B
253:
D
254:
C
Solution: According to section 139 of the Companies Act of 2013, the First Auditor of a business other than an agency of the government must be chosen by the Board within 30 days after incorporation
255:
B
256:
D
257:
A
258:
A
Solution: Correct Answer: A: The fairness of the financial statements Let's break down why this is the right answer and why the others aren't the best fit: Option A: The fairness of the financial statements - This is the primary goal of an audit. Auditors want to determine if the financial statements present a fair view of the company's financial position and performance, meaning they are free from material misstatement and comply with accounting standards. Option B: The accuracy of the financial statements - While accuracy is important, an audit focuses more on 'fairness' rather than absolute accuracy. It's impractical and often impossible to guarantee that every single transaction is 100% accurate. Auditors focus on material misstatements, which are errors that could influence decisions. Option C: The accuracy of the annual report - The annual report contains more than just financial statements. It also includes management's discussion and analysis, and other information. Audits specifically target the financial statements. Option D: The balance sheet and income statement - While the balance sheet and income statement are important components, an audit covers all the financial statements which also includes the statement of cash flows and statement of changes in equity (or retained earnings). The audit opinion applies to the complete set of financial statements. In summary: The core objective of an audit is to provide an opinion on whether the financial statements 'fairly present' the company's financial position and performance.
259:
C
260:
C
261:
A
262:
C
263:
B
264:
D
265:
C
266:
A
267:
B
268:
C
269:
C
270:
D
271:
D
272:
D
273:
A
274:
B
275:
A
276:
B
277:
D
278:
C
279:
A
280:
A
281:
C
282:
B
Solution: Section 141 of the Companies Act, 2013 contains provisions regarding the remuneration of auditors. This section specifies various aspects related to the appointment, remuneration, and terms of auditors' services for companies governed by the Act. It outlines the eligibility criteria for auditors, their appointment by shareholders, the determination of their remuneration, and the limitations on additional services they can provide to the company. Therefore, the correct option is Section 141 .
283:
C
284:
B
285:
C
286:
B
287:
B
288:
B, G
289:
D
290:
B
291:
B
292:
A
293:
D
294:
C
295:
B
296:
N/A
297:
D
298:
A
299:
D
300:
D
301:
C
302:
B
303:
D
304:
C
305:
A
306:
C
307:
B
308:
B
309:
D
310:
B
311:
C
312:
D
313:
C
314:
D
315:
B
316:
B
317:
A
318:
A
319:
B
320:
C
321:
A
322:
B
323:
B
324:
C
325:
A
326:
C
327:
N/A
328:
A
329:
C
330:
B
331:
C
332:
B
333:
D
334:
B
335:
C
336:
A
337:
C
338:
C
339:
A
340:
C
341:
A
342:
C
343:
D
344:
D
345:
A
346:
C
347:
B
348:
D
349:
B
350:
C
351:
B
352:
C
353:
D
354:
B
355:
C
356:
C
357:
B
358:
D
359:
A
360:
A
361:
D
362:
C
363:
A
364:
D
365:
A
366:
A
367:
A
368:
D
369:
B
370:
A
371:
D
372:
D
373:
B
374:
D
375:
A
376:
C
377:
D
378:
A
379:
D
380:
C
381:
B
382:
A
383:
B
384:
B
385:
D
386:
C
387:
C
388:
A
389:
A
390:
A
391:
B
392:
A
393:
C
394:
C
395:
A
396:
C
397:
N/A
398:
A
399:
B
400:
B
401:
A
402:
A
403:
B
404:
C
405:
C
406:
D
407:
B
408:
A
409:
C
410:
D
411:
B
412:
B
413:
A
414:
D
415:
A
416:
C
417:
C
418:
A
419:
A
420:
D
421:
C
422:
C
423:
A
424:
B
425:
D
426:
B
427:
D
428:
A
429:
B
430:
A
431:
B
432:
B
433:
C
434:
D
435:
C
436:
C
437:
B
438:
C
439:
A
440:
A
441:
C
442:
A
443:
D
444:
A
445:
D
446:
D
447:
B
448:
A
449:
B
450:
B
451:
D
452:
B
453:
B
454:
A
455:
B
456:
A
457:
C
458:
D
459:
C
460:
B
461:
B
462:
B
463:
D
464:
D
465:
A
466:
D
467:
B
468:
D
469:
D
470:
A
471:
A
472:
A
473:
C
474:
B
475:
C
476:
C
477:
C
478:
D
479:
C
480:
A
481:
B
482:
B
483:
A
484:
B
485:
B
486:
C
487:
C
488:
B
489:
D
490:
A